A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple long bone fractures caused by a motor-vehicle crash that happened 24 hr ago. The client tells the nurse he is short of breath and experiencing chest pain. The nurse should assess the client further for which of the following potential complications?
Hypovolemic shock
Fat embolism syndrome
Venous thromboembolism
Compartment syndrome
The Correct Answer is B
A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a significant loss of blood volume. While it can occur due to severe trauma, the symptoms of shortness of breath and chest pain are more indicative of a potential respiratory issue, making Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) a higher concern in this case.
B. Correct. Given the client's recent multiple long bone fractures and the symptoms of shortness of breath and chest pain, the nurse should be concerned about the possibility of fat embolism syndrome (FES). FES can occur as a result of long bone fractures, particularly those involving the femur, pelvis, or tibia. Fat emboli can enter the bloodstream and potentially obstruct blood vessels, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and altered mental status.
C. Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition involving the formation of blood clots in the veins, which can lead to complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE). While this is a consideration for clients with immobilization due to fractures, it is not the primary concern in this case based on the presenting symptoms.
D. Compartment syndrome is a condition characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. While it can occur after fractures, it typically presents with symptoms like severe pain, swelling, and tense muscles, rather than shortness of breath and chest pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Delaying the surgery until a member of the client's family is reached may not be in the best interest of the client if urgent surgical intervention is indicated.
B. While naloxone can reverse the effects of opioids like morphine, it is not the primary action the neurosurgeon would take in this situation. The priority is addressing the urgent surgical need.
C. Invoking implied consent is the most appropriate action in this situation. Implied consent is assumed in emergency situations where the client is unable to provide consent, and delay would significantly jeopardize the client's health.
D. Asking the client to sign the surgical consent form would not be feasible in this situation since the client is likely not in a condition to provide informed consent due to the administration of intravenous morphine and the urgency of the surgical intervention.
Correct Answer is ["20"]
Explanation
- To calculate the dose of naproxen oral suspension, use the following formula: Dose (mL) = Desired dose (mg) / Available dose (mg/mL)
- In this case, the desired dose is 500 mg and the available dose is 125 mg/5 mL, which is equivalent to 25 mg/mL
- Plug in the values into the formula: Dose (mL) = 500 mg / 25 mg/mL - Simplify the expression: Dose (mL) = 20 mL
- Round the answer to the nearest whole number: Dose (mL) = 20 mL
- The nurse should administer 20 mL of naproxen oral suspension per dose
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