A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for total parental nutrition (TPN).
Which of the following routes of administration should the nurse use?
Midline catheter.
Central venous access device.
Subcutaneous.
Intraosseous.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because TPN solutions are concentrated and can cause thrombosis of peripheral veins, so a central venous catheter is usually required. TPN should only be used when the intestine is unavailable or unable to absorb nutrients.
Choice A is wrong because a midline catheter is a type of peripheral catheter that can only be used for solutions with low or moderate osmolarity, not for TPN.
Choice C is wrong because subcutaneous administration is not a route for delivering TPN, which requires intravenous infusion.
Choice D is wrong because intraosseous administration is an emergency route for delivering fluids and drugs when intravenous access is not available, not for TPN.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The FACES pain scale is a self-report tool that uses six facial expressions to indicate different levels of pain. It is suitable for children aged 3 to 13 years who can match their pain to a face. The nurse should use this scale to assess the pain of a 4-year-old child following an orthopaedic procedure.
Choice B. Word-graphic is wrong because it is a pain scale that uses words and pictures to describe pain intensity.
It is suitable for children aged 8 to 17 years who can read and understand words.
Choice C. Numeric is wrong because it is a pain scale that uses numbers from 0 to 10 to rate pain intensity. It is suitable for children aged 5 years and older who can understand numbers and concepts of more or less.
Choice D. CRIES is wrong because it is a pain scale that uses five behavioural indicators (crying, requiring increased oxygen, increased vital signs, expression, and sleeplessness) to measure pain in neonates.
It is suitable for infants aged 0 to 6 months who cannot communicate verbally.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
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