A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?
Place the client in the lithotomy position.
Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.
Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.
Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F"]
Explanation
A: Correct. Firmly massaging the uterine fundus helps to contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.
B: Correct. Providing emotional support helps to calm the client and reduce anxiety, which can worsen bleeding.
C: Correct. Administering oxygen helps to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation, which can be compromised by blood loss.
D: Correct. Weighing the perineal pads helps to quantify the amount of blood loss and monitor for hemorrhage.
E: Correct. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter helps to empty the bladder and allow the uterus to descend and contract more effectively.
F: Correct. Administering methylergonovine helps to stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding.
G: Incorrect. Administering terbutaline is contraindicated in this situation, as it relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and increases bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This client is at risk of harming themselves by removing the IV line, which could cause bleeding, infection, or loss of medication. This is a priority issue that requires immediate intervention by the nurse.
B. This client is experiencing a common side effect of pain medication, which can be managed by administering antiemetics, fluids, or changing the medication. This is not a life-threatening issue and can be addressed after attending to the client in choice A.
C. This client has a chronic condition that requires regular dialysis, but they are not in acute distress at this time. They should be monitored for signs of fluid overload, electrolyte imbalance, or infection, but they are not a priority over the client in choice A.
D. This client has a psychosocial need that should be respected and supported by the nurse, but it is not an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. The nurse can arrange for a visit from the chaplain after attending to the client in choice A.
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