A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?
Place the client in the lithotomy position.
Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.
Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.
Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. A hemoglobin level of 14.9 g/dL indicates that the client has an adequate amount of oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, which is the goal of blood transfusion therapy.
B. Incorrect. A WBC count of 12,000/mm3 is slightly elevated and may indicate an infection or inflammation, which are not related to blood transfusion therapy.
C. Incorrect. A potassium level of 48 mEq/L is dangerously high and may cause cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. This is not an expected outcome of blood transfusion therapy and may indicate hemolysis or renal impairment.
D. Incorrect. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not reflect the effectiveness of blood transfusion therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Pain with movement of the left great toe is incorrect finding: Pain may be expected in a client with a fractured left tibia, especially if the great toe is moved. Pain is more related to the fracture and may not specifically indicate altered tissue perfusion.
Choice B reason:
Faint pedal pulse of the left leg is correct because it indicates that the blood flow to the foot is diminished. The pedal pulse is the pulse felt on the top of the foot, and its faintness could suggest reduced arterial blood flow to the foot.
Choice C reason:
Warm skin temperature distal to the pin site is incorrect: Warm skin distal to the pin site may indicate adequate blood flow and could be a normal finding. Warmth is generally associated with increased blood flow to the area.
Choice D reason:
Purulent drainage at the pin site is incorrect. Purulent drainage at the pin site could indicate an infection, but it is not directly related to altered tissue perfusion. Infection can lead to complications, but it does not necessarily indicate reduced blood flow to the extremity
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