A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?
Place the client in the lithotomy position.
Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.
Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.
Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A is incorrect because the client should stand with their feet together, not 1 foot apart, for the Romberg test.
B is incorrect because the client should hold their arms at their sides, not on their hips, for the Romberg test.
C is incorrect because the nurse should stand close to the client, not across the room, to prevent injury in case of a fall.
D is correct because the Romberg test involves checking the client's balance with their eyes open and then with their eyes closed.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
A.The client's weight has remained relatively stable (83.9 kg to 83 kg), which does not indicate an immediate health concern compared to the acute behavioral and mental health symptoms observed.
B. While the client's neurostatus (mental status) is affected by the presence of auditory hallucinations, pressured speech, and restlessness, these symptoms are more critical in terms of immediate management than a general assessment of neurologic status.
C. Auditory hallucinations, such as appearing to listen to unseen others, are concerning symptoms indicating possible exacerbation of schizophrenia or medication non-compliance. Immediate assessment and intervention by mental health professionals are needed.
D.Pressured speechis commonly seen in mania or anxiety.Poverty of speechcan be associated with shyness, depression, schizophrenia, or cognitive impairment. Pressured speech noted along with other symptoms can indicate agitation or worsening of mental health symptoms. It suggests the client may be experiencing an acute phase of their illness, requiring evaluation and possibly adjustment of medications.
E. Restlessness, frequently getting out of the chair, and appearing tired and disheveled indicate agitation and potential agitation or anxiety. This could be a sign of increased agitation, anxiety, or distress, which needs immediate attention to prevent escalation.
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