A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?
Place the client in the lithotomy position.
Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.
Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.
Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The LPN and AP lower the side rails before lifting the client up in bed is incorrect. This is a safe practice that prevents injury to the client and staff by providing more space for movement and reducing the risk of falling.
B. Prior to lifting the client, the LPN and AP raise the bed to waist level is incorrect. This is a safe practice that prevents injury to the client and staff by reducing the need for bending and lifting.
C. The LPN and the AP grasp the client under his arms to lift him up in bed is correct. This is an unsafe practice that can cause injury to the client's shoulders, neck, and axillae by applying excessive pressure and friction. The LPN and AP should use a draw sheet or a mechanical lift device to move the client up in bed.
D. The LPN and the AP ask the client to flex his knees and push his heels into the bed as they lift is incorrect. This is a safe practice that encourages active participation from the client and reduces the workload for the staff by using leverage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. A hemoglobin level of 14.9 g/dL indicates that the client has an adequate amount of oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, which is the goal of blood transfusion therapy.
B. Incorrect. A WBC count of 12,000/mm3 is slightly elevated and may indicate an infection or inflammation, which are not related to blood transfusion therapy.
C. Incorrect. A potassium level of 48 mEq/L is dangerously high and may cause cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. This is not an expected outcome of blood transfusion therapy and may indicate hemolysis or renal impairment.
D. Incorrect. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not reflect the effectiveness of blood transfusion therapy.
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