A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client who is obese. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select a 1-inch needle.
Use a 45° angle when inserting the needle.
Use the ventrogluteal site.
Pinch the skin up during injection.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Incorrect. A 1-inch needle may not be long enough to reach the muscle layer in an obese client, which may result in subcutaneous injection and reduced absorption of the medication.
B. Incorrect. A 45° angle may not be appropriate for an IM injection, as it may cause the needle to enter at an oblique angle and miss the muscle layer or hit a bone or nerve.
C. Correct. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in obese clients, as it has less subcutaneous fat and a large muscle mass that can accommodate larger volumes of medication.
D. Incorrect. Pinching the skin up during injection may cause the needle to enter at a shallow angle and deposit the medication in the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle layer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
The client is at risk for experiencing electrolyte imbalance due to the vomiting. Persistent vomiting during pregnancy, especially with significant weight loss, can lead to electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hyponatremia, or metabolic alkalosis. This can result from the body's inability to retain essential minerals and fluids. The client’s reported diet of minimal food intake, primarily consisting of toast and pretzels, indicates inadequate nutrition and potential for further exacerbation of these imbalances.
The significant weight loss of 6.8 kg (15 lb) within a month and continuous nausea and vomiting are concerning symptoms that warrant immediate medical evaluation. The nurse’s advice to seek a provider’s assessment underscores the need for timely intervention to address potential complications, ensure maternal and fetal health, and possibly prescribe antiemetic medications or other treatments to manage symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client who has cellulitis and is receiving oral antibiotics every 8 hr has a mild to moderate infection that can be managed at home with proper wound care and medication adherence. The client does not require hospitalization unless there are signs of systemic infection or complications.
B. A client who is postoperative following an upper endoscopy procedure and is alert but does not have a gag reflex has a high risk of aspiration and airway obstruction due to impaired swallowing function. The client requires close monitoring and intervention until the gag reflex returns, which can take several hours or longer depending on the type and amount of anesthesia used.
C. A mother and their newborn 12 hr postdelivery have not completed the minimum recommended stay of 24 to 48 hours for uncomplicated vaginal deliveries or 72 to 96 hours for cesarean deliveries, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. The mother and their newborn require assessment, education, support, and follow-up care to ensure their health and well-being.
D. A client who has lower extremity weakness and is newly admitted for observation has an undiagnosed condition that could indicate a serious neurological or vascular problem, such as stroke, spinal cord injury, or peripheral artery disease. The client requires diagnostic testing, evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation to prevent further deterioration or complications.
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