A nurse is caring for a client who delivered a newborn by caesarean section birth 1 day ago. The client requests nonpharmacological interventions to manage pain when changing positions. Which of the following responses should the nurse take
You can splint the incision with a pillow when changing positiion
You should change position as little as possible
You should use patterned paced breathing when changing positions
You can apply counterpressure to your back with each position change
The Correct Answer is A
A) You can splint the incision with a pillow when changing position: Splinting the incision with a pillow is an excellent nonpharmacological method to manage pain during position changes after a cesarean section. The pillow helps provide support to the incision site, reduces strain on the abdominal muscles, and minimizes discomfort when the client moves. This is a safe and effective intervention to help with pain management.
B) You should change position as little as possible: While minimizing movement might seem like a way to prevent pain, it can lead to complications like muscle stiffness, poor circulation, and respiratory issues. It’s important for clients to change positions to promote comfort, circulation, and lung expansion, but they should do so with support to manage pain effectively.
C) You should use patterned paced breathing when changing positions: Patterned paced breathing is a helpful relaxation technique that can be used in various situations, including labor and delivery. However, it is not the most appropriate response in this context, as the client’s pain is more related to physical discomfort from the incision, and physical support (like splinting the incision) would be more effective in managing this type of pain.
D) You can apply counterpressure to your back with each position change: While counterpressure can be beneficial for back pain during labor, it is not the most relevant technique for managing pain after a cesarean section, where the pain is related to the abdominal incision site. Splinting the incision provides more targeted support for post-cesarean discomfort.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Increase in concentration: Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication used to manage symptoms of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. While it may have some effects on cognition, an increase in concentration is not the primary therapeutic effect of chlorpromazine.
B) Decrease in delusions: Chlorpromazine is effective in reducing symptoms of psychosis, such as delusions and hallucinations, which are common in conditions like schizophrenia. A decrease in delusions is a direct indicator that the medication is having its intended therapeutic effect.
C) Increase in alertness: Chlorpromazine can cause sedation and drowsiness as side effects, particularly during the initial stages of treatment. An increase in alertness would not be a typical therapeutic outcome, and it may even suggest a side effect like overstimulation or anxiety rather than the intended effect.
D) Decrease in anxiety: While chlorpromazine may have some calming effects, it is primarily used to treat symptoms of psychosis, not anxiety disorders. A decrease in anxiety is not the main therapeutic effect of chlorpromazine. Other medications, such as benzodiazepines, are typically used for anxiety management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Staff members used a class A fire extinguisher during an electrical fire.
This response indicates that the safety plan is effective because it shows that the staff used the correct type of fire extinguisher for the fire they encountered. Class A fire extinguishers are designed for ordinary combustibles (e.g., wood, paper, cloth), but using a fire extinguisher that is correctly suited to the fire type demonstrates that the staff are trained and prepared to respond appropriately in an emergency. For electrical fires, however, a Class C fire extinguisher should be used. This suggests a review of fire safety plan training might be necessary to align fire extinguisher types with fire classes.
B) Staff members review the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years.
Reviewing the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years is not an adequate frequency. Fire safety protocols should be reviewed more frequently to ensure that staff are consistently aware of fire extinguisher locations. Routine and more frequent checks (e.g., annually) are required to ensure proper preparedness in an emergency.
C) An evacuation was ordered during a fire when fire extinguishers were not effective.
While evacuations are necessary in certain situations, an evacuation being ordered because fire extinguishers were ineffective could indicate that the safety plan was not properly executed or that there was an issue with fire extinguisher maintenance or staff training. The effectiveness of fire safety plans should reduce the need for evacuations due to inadequate response efforts.
D) Fire alarms in the facility have the same sound as other alarms.
Fire alarms should have a distinct sound that differentiates them from other types of alarms (e.g., medical or security alarms). If fire alarms have the same sound as other alarms, it could create confusion in an emergency, undermining the effectiveness of the safety plan. The alarm system should be unique and easily identifiable.
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