A nurse is caring for a client who begins showing signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Methadone
Acamprosate
Disulfiram
Lorazepam
The Correct Answer is D
A. Methadone is an opioid agonist primarily used for the management of opioid dependence and chronic pain. It is not indicated for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal or delirium.
B. Acamprosate is a medication used to support abstinence in individuals who have recently stopped drinking alcohol. It is not typically used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms such as delirium tremens.
C. Disulfiram is a medication used as an aversive therapy to deter alcohol consumption by causing unpleasant reactions (e.g., flushing, nausea, vomiting) when alcohol is ingested. It is not indicated for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal or delirium.
D. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including delirium tremens. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the central nervous system, thereby reducing the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as seizures.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Phenytoin can rarely cause a side effect known as "purple glove syndrome" if it infiltrates into the surrounding tissues during intravenous administration, leading to discoloration. However, this is not relevant to oral suspension administration.
B. Taking an antacid with phenytoin is generally not recommended as it may decrease the absorption of phenytoin. Phenytoin should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure optimal absorption.
C. Phenytoin oral suspension may settle over time, so it's important to shake the bottle well before measuring and administering each dose to ensure uniform distribution of the medication.
D. While obtaining an annual flu vaccine is generally advisable for individuals with epilepsy, it's not directly related to phenytoin administration and should be part of routine healthcare maintenance rather than specific guidance for phenytoin therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While risperidone can cause orthostatic hypotension, which may result in decreased blood pressure, it is not typically associated with elevated blood pressure.
B. Risperidone has been associated with metabolic side effects such as weight gain, dyslipidemia, and increased triglyceride levels, which can contribute to cardiovascular risk.
C. Risperidone is not typically associated with hypoglycemia; instead, it may lead to hyperglycemia or exacerbate existing diabetes.
D. Weight gain is a more common adverse effect of risperidone rather than weight loss.
Monitoring for weight gain is essential due to its association with metabolic syndrome and cardiovascular risk factors.
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