A nurse is caring for a client at a 10-week prenatal visit. The provider diagnoses the client with a missed spontaneous abortion confirmed by ultrasound and the nurse is discussing the plan of care with the client.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"It can be helpful to talk about your loss with others who have experienced a pregnancy loss.”.
"Once the fetus is passed, the provider will likely be able to determine what caused the pregnancy loss.”.
"I have found that it is best to avoid seeing the fetal remains after the procedure.”.
"It is okay to feel some grief now, even though it is so early in the pregnancy for a loss.”.
Correct Answer : A,D
Choice A rationale
Providing an opportunity to connect with others who have experienced similar losses offers significant psychosocial support. Sharing experiences can normalize grief, reduce feelings of isolation, and validate emotions. This peer support can facilitate the grieving process by fostering a sense of community and understanding during a challenging time.
Choice B rationale
While some causes of spontaneous abortion can be identified, many remain unknown even after the expulsion of fetal tissue. Genetic anomalies, chromosomal abnormalities, or uterine factors are often implicated, but a definitive cause is not always determined. Providing this information can create unrealistic expectations and potential disappointment for the client.
Choice C rationale
The decision to view fetal remains is highly personal and depends on individual coping mechanisms and cultural beliefs. For some, it can be a crucial part of acknowledging the loss and beginning the grieving process. Advising against it prematurely removes a potential avenue for closure and validation for the client.
Choice D rationale
Validating the client's grief, regardless of the gestational age, is crucial for emotional well-being. Acknowledging that it is "okay to feel some grief now" provides permission for the client to experience their emotions. Grief is a subjective process, and the intensity and duration are not dictated by the length of the pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering a rubella immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated because the rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. There is a theoretical risk of viral transmission to the fetus, which could lead to congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should occur postpartum to protect future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding is not contraindicated after receiving the rubella vaccine. Although rubella vaccine virus can be excreted in breast milk, it generally does not cause clinical illness in the infant and passive transfer of antibodies may provide some protection to the infant.
Choice C rationale
A rubella titer of 1: indicates a low level of rubella antibodies, meaning the client is susceptible to rubella infection. A titer of less than 1: or 1: is generally considered non-immune, requiring vaccination to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Repeating a rubella titer in the third trimester is not a standard practice for assessing susceptibility. Once susceptibility is determined, the primary intervention is postpartum vaccination. The initial titer result accurately reflects immune status and further testing during pregnancy is unnecessary.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Blood pressure readings below 160/110 mm Hg overnight indicate some level of blood pressure control, which is a positive sign in hypertensive pregnancy conditions. The goal is to maintain pressures below this threshold to reduce risk of end-organ damage. Stable or lower pressures reduce cerebral and placental ischemia risk. Therefore, resting well with controlled BP suggests no immediate worsening, indicating progression is stable at this point.
Choice B rationale: A decrease in headache intensity temporarily is a favorable clinical sign. Headache in preeclampsia is caused by cerebral edema and vasospasm, so improvement indicates less neurological irritation or pressure. However, this is a transient improvement and must be interpreted cautiously, but the reduction alone does not indicate a worsening condition, so it is not a marker of poor progression.
Choice C rationale: An increased headache intensity rating to 7/10 signals significant neurological involvement and increased cerebral irritation, typical of worsening preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. Severe headaches in pregnancy with hypertension indicate cerebral vasospasm or edema, which may lead to seizures if untreated. This is a critical sign requiring urgent intervention to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity.
Choice D rationale: Persistent visual disturbances such as seeing spots or flashes are neurological symptoms indicating retinal or cerebral involvement due to vasospasm, ischemia, or edema. These symptoms are common in severe preeclampsia and herald worsening disease. Visual symptoms result from endothelial dysfunction affecting cerebral and retinal vessels, requiring immediate evaluation to prevent progression to eclampsia.
Choice E rationale: Epigastric discomfort reflects stretching or ischemia of the liver capsule from hepatic involvement in severe preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome. This pain typically presents as right upper quadrant or epigastric pain due to hepatocellular injury or microvascular thrombosis. It is a warning sign of multisystem involvement and potential progression to life-threatening complications such as hepatic rupture.
Choice F rationale: Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes (3+ to 4+) and positive clonus are clinical signs of central nervous system irritability caused by increased excitability of motor neurons. This occurs due to cerebral vasospasm and ischemia in severe preeclampsia and predicts risk for seizures (eclampsia). These neurological signs are crucial in assessing disease severity and necessitate urgent management.
Choice G rationale: Urine output between 25 and 55 mL/hr approaches the lower limit of normal (normal ≥30 mL/hr). Reduced urine output in preeclampsia indicates renal hypoperfusion or injury due to endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm, which can progress to acute kidney injury. Monitoring urine output is essential as oliguria signals worsening renal compromise, increasing maternal and fetal risk.
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