A nurse is caring for a female client, age 30, at 37 weeks of gestation, admitted to the labor and delivery unit from the provider’s office for observation and laboratory testing.
Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Moderate fetal heart rate variability
Headache
Heart rate
Edema
Blood pressure
Fetal heart rate
Irregular contractions
Negative ankle clonus
Patellar deep tendon reflexes
Correct Answer : B,D,E
Choice A rationale: Moderate fetal heart rate variability indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response in the fetus, reflecting adequate oxygenation and neurologic function. Variability within moderate range (6-25 beats/min) suggests the fetus is not currently experiencing hypoxia or acidosis. This finding is reassuring and does not require urgent reporting as it reflects normal fetal well-being according to obstetrical monitoring standards.
Choice B rationale: Persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant client with elevated blood pressure is a significant symptom suggestive of worsening preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. Headache can result from cerebral vasospasm or edema and requires prompt evaluation as it indicates central nervous system involvement. Elevated blood pressure over 140/90 mm Hg plus headache raises concern for severe preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale: The heart rate of 98 beats/min is within normal adult range (60-100 bpm) and is not clinically concerning in this context.
Choice D rationale: Edema, especially 2+ pitting in the lower extremities and hands, is common in pregnancy but circumorbital and hand edema preventing ring removal is concerning. It may indicate fluid retention due to endothelial dysfunction and capillary leakage seen in preeclampsia. Such edema suggests worsening vascular permeability and should be reported for timely management.
Choice E rationale: Blood pressure reading of 160/98 mm Hg is above the normal pregnancy threshold (less than 140/90 mm Hg) and qualifies as severe hypertension. Elevated blood pressure is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia and increases risk for maternal and fetal complications including stroke, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction, requiring immediate provider notification.
Choice F rationale: The fetal heart rate of 130 beats/min falls within the normal baseline range (110-160 bpm) with moderate variability, indicating no current fetal distress. This normal finding does not require urgent reporting as it reflects appropriate fetal status.
Choice G rationale: Irregular contractions without pattern or intensity are common and often represent Braxton Hicks contractions, especially near term. These do not typically indicate active labor or distress and do not require urgent reporting unless they become regular, painful, or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Choice H rationale: Negative ankle clonus reflects normal neurological function and absence of central nervous system hyperreflexia. Presence of clonus could suggest severe preeclampsia with neurological involvement; its absence is reassuring and not a reportable concern.
Choice I rationale: Patellar deep tendon reflexes at 2+ are normal on a scale of 0 to 4+. Hyperreflexia (3+ or 4+) could indicate neurologic irritability from preeclampsia. Normal reflexes suggest no current severe neurological involvement, so this does not warrant immediate reporting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2) can be harmful to a developing fetus and newborn. While primary infection during the first trimester can rarely lead to congenital anomalies, the most significant risk is neonatal herpes, which occurs when the newborn is exposed to the virus during passage through the birth canal if active lesions are present. Neonatal herpes can cause severe, life-threatening complications.
Choice B rationale
Transmission of HSV-2 to the newborn is significantly higher if active genital lesions are present at the time of vaginal birth. The virus can be shed from these lesions and infect the infant as they pass through the birth canal. Therefore, a Cesarean section is typically recommended if active lesions are present at the onset of labor.
Choice C rationale
Wearing tight-fitting undergarments can increase moisture and friction, potentially irritating existing lesions and hindering healing. Loose-fitting cotton undergarments are generally recommended to allow air circulation and reduce irritation, promoting a more favorable environment for lesion resolution and comfort.
Choice D rationale
Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir, can help manage genital herpes by reducing the frequency, duration, and severity of outbreaks. They work by inhibiting viral replication. However, these medications do not cure the condition; HSV-2 remains a lifelong viral infection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The bladder is distended upon palpation: A distended bladder suggests urinary retention, not effective voiding. This may impair uterine contraction and increase the risk of hemorrhage.
B. The uterine fundus is 2 cm above the umbilicus: A high-rising fundus may indicate a full bladder that is displacing the uterus, often due to incomplete voiding.
C. The client does not feel the urge to urinate: Lack of urge may indicate altered bladder sensation, a potential complication after catheter removal and childbirth.
D. The client urinates 30 mL/hr: Urine output of ≥30 mL/hr is considered adequate and reflects effective voiding and kidney function, especially in the postpartum period.
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