A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who is in active labor on December 26. The client reports their last menstrual period was around April 1. Which of the following ages is the anticipated gestational age of the fetus?
36 weeks.
38 weeks.
39 weeks.
42 weeks.
The Correct Answer is C
Step 1 is to determine the number of days from April 1 to December 26. Days in April = 30 - 1 + 1 = 30 days. Days in May = 31 days. Days in June = 30 days. Days in July = 31 days. Days in August = 31 days. Days in September = 30 days. Days in October = 31 days. Days in November = 30 days. Days in December = 26 days. Total number of days = 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 26 = 270 days.
Step 2 is to convert the total number of days into weeks. 270 days ÷ 7 days/week = 38.57 weeks.
Step 3 is to round to the nearest whole week. The anticipated gestational age is 39 weeks.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic, but it is typically used for moderate to severe pain and is not commonly administered as a primary agent for severe active labor pain due to its slower onset and potential for more pronounced maternal and neonatal respiratory depression compared to other rapid-acting opioids.
Choice B rationale
Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) primarily used for mild to moderate pain and inflammation. It is generally not effective enough for severe labor pain and is contraindicated in late pregnancy due to potential adverse effects on fetal circulation, such as premature closure of the ductus arteriosus.
Choice C rationale
Naloxone hydrochloride is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Administering naloxone during active labor would reverse the effects of any pain medication given, exacerbating the client's pain and potentially precipitating opioid withdrawal symptoms, thus it is not an appropriate pain management strategy.
Choice D rationale
Fentanyl citrate is a potent, rapid-acting synthetic opioid analgesic commonly used for severe pain during active labor. Its quick onset and short duration of action make it suitable for intermittent administration, allowing for effective pain relief with a lower risk of prolonged neonatal respiratory depression compared to longer-acting opioids.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bladder distention upon palpation indicates urinary retention, not effective voiding. When the bladder remains distended, it signifies incomplete emptying, which can lead to urinary stasis and increased risk of urinary tract infections. Effective voiding requires coordinated detrusor muscle contraction and urethral sphincter relaxation, which is absent with distention.
Choice B rationale
A uterine fundus 2 cm above the umbilicus, especially in the postpartum period, suggests uterine atony and possible bladder distention. A full bladder can displace the uterus upward and to the side, preventing effective uterine contraction and involution, which is crucial for preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Normal fundal height should decrease daily.
Choice C rationale
Not feeling the urge to urinate could indicate nerve damage, overdistention with sensory nerve suppression, or a very low urine output. Normal bladder sensation is crucial for effective voiding. The absence of the urge may lead to prolonged bladder distention, increasing the risk of infection and bladder dysfunction, which hinders efficient emptying.
Choice D rationale
Urinating 30 mL/hr, while seemingly low, is a continuous output and suggests the client is able to empty their bladder, albeit slowly. Postpartum diuresis typically begins within 12 hours, with urine output of 100 to 250 mL/hr common. However, any consistent output, rather than retention, indicates some voiding effectiveness.
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