A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to assess further?
Increased leukorrhea.
Urinary frequency.
Persistent headache.
Insomnia.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Increased leukorrhea, or vaginal discharge, is a common and normal physiological finding during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and blood flow to the vaginal area. This increase in discharge helps prevent ascending infections. Unless accompanied by itching, odor, or color changes, it typically does not indicate a problem.
Choice B rationale
Urinary frequency is a common symptom in late pregnancy, particularly in the third trimester. It results from the enlarging uterus compressing the bladder, reducing its capacity, and increasing renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, leading to increased urine production. It is a normal physiological adaptation.
Choice C rationale
A persistent headache in a pregnant client, especially in the third trimester, is a priority to assess further because it can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Other symptoms of preeclampsia include visual disturbances, right upper quadrant pain, and proteinuria. Early identification is crucial for intervention.
Choice D rationale
Insomnia is a common complaint during the third trimester of pregnancy. It can be attributed to various factors such as physical discomfort, frequent urination, fetal movements, anxiety, and hormonal changes. While bothersome, it is generally considered a normal, though often challenging, aspect of late pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ensuring suction is available is critical because clients with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia are at risk for seizures that can cause airway obstruction from secretions or vomiting. Suction readiness supports immediate airway management during a seizure, preventing aspiration and maintaining oxygenation, essential in protecting maternal and fetal health.
Choice B rationale: Administering 10 L of oxygen via nasal cannula is not appropriate because nasal cannulas typically deliver oxygen up to 6 L/min; higher flows require a different delivery system like a non-rebreather mask. Also, routine high-flow oxygen is not indicated unless hypoxia is present. The client’s oxygen saturation is normal (99%), so supplemental oxygen at this rate is unnecessary and could cause discomfort or drying of mucous membranes.
Choice C rationale: Raising side rails is a safety measure to prevent injury during seizures or sudden movements caused by central nervous system irritability in preeclampsia. Elevated side rails help protect the client from falls or trauma if a seizure occurs, an essential precaution in clients with neurological symptoms such as hyperreflexia and clonus.
Choice D rationale: Placing a padded tongue blade at the bedside prepares for seizure management by preventing tongue biting and airway obstruction. The padded blade reduces the risk of oral trauma during convulsions and maintains airway patency. However, it should be used carefully to avoid airway injury or obstruction and only if a seizure occurs.
Choice E rationale: Dimming lights reduces environmental stimuli that may exacerbate neurological irritability or trigger seizures in preeclampsia/eclampsia. Bright or flashing lights can increase CNS excitation, worsening headache, visual disturbances, or seizure risk. Creating a calm, low-stimulation environment helps stabilize the client’s neurological status.
Choice F rationale: Placing the client in the supine position is contraindicated because it compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, potentially worsening placental perfusion. The left lateral position is preferred in hypertensive pregnancy to optimize uteroplacental blood flow and maternal hemodynamics, improving fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Immediate cesarean birth is generally not indicated for intrauterine fetal demise unless there are maternal complications, such as hemorrhage or infection, or if the client has a prior uterine scar that contraindicates vaginal birth. Cesarean section carries higher risks for the mother compared to vaginal delivery and is usually reserved for specific obstetrical indications.
Choice B rationale
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite medication primarily used in the management of ectopic pregnancy or gestational trophoblastic disease due to its cytotoxic effects on rapidly dividing cells. It is not indicated for the induction of labor or expulsion of a fetus in cases of intrauterine fetal demise as it does not stimulate uterine contractions effectively for this purpose.
Choice C rationale
In cases of intrauterine fetal demise at 36 weeks of gestation, scheduled induction of labor is the most common and generally recommended treatment option. This approach allows for planned delivery, reduces the psychological burden of carrying a deceased fetus, and minimizes the risk of complications such as coagulopathy for the mother, typically occurring after prolonged retention.
Choice D rationale
Dilation with suction curettage is a procedure typically used for early pregnancy termination or management of miscarriage in the first or early second trimester. At 36 weeks of gestation, the size of the fetus and uterus makes this procedure unsafe and inappropriate for delivery of a deceased fetus, posing significant risks of uterine perforation or hemorrhage.
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