A nurse is caring for a client who is in a trial of labor for vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). The client reports a sudden tearing pain in their back and side that does not feel like a uterine contraction.
Which of the following findings indicates the client may be experiencing a uterine rupture?
Observation of a sudden gush of amniotic fluid.
Hypotension with a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg.
Severe bradypnea with a respiratory rate of 10/min.
Palpation of the fetal presenting part in the cervical os.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A sudden gush of amniotic fluid typically indicates rupture of membranes (ROM), which can be spontaneous or induced. While ROM can occur during labor, it is not a direct indicator of uterine rupture, which is a catastrophic event involving the tearing of the uterine wall and often presents with different clinical signs.
Choice B rationale
Hypotension with a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg is a critical finding suggesting hypovolemic shock, often due to internal hemorrhage, which is a common consequence of uterine rupture. The sudden loss of maternal blood into the abdominal cavity leads to a rapid decrease in circulating blood volume and subsequent systemic hypotension.
Choice C rationale
Severe bradypnea with a respiratory rate of 10/min is not a primary indicator of uterine rupture. Bradypnea often suggests central nervous system depression, possibly from medication effects or other neurological events, but is not a direct physiological response to the acute blood loss and pain associated with a uterine tear.
Choice D rationale
Palpation of the fetal presenting part in the cervical os is a normal finding during labor progression as the fetus descends. However, if the presenting part is palpated higher or outside the uterus, it can indicate expulsion of the fetus into the abdominal cavity following a complete uterine rupture, which is an abnormal and emergent finding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, often used in labor inductions complicated by preeclampsia or gestational hypertension. Having it readily available ensures prompt treatment of symptoms like respiratory depression or cardiac arrhythmias caused by magnesium overdose. This safety measure is critical because oxytocin use can increase uterine contractions and magnesium sulfate use requires close monitoring to prevent toxicity.
Choice B rationale: Obtaining the client’s heart rate prior to initiating oxytocin is essential to establish a baseline and monitor for tachycardia or bradycardia, which may affect maternal and fetal safety. Oxytocin can cause cardiovascular changes, including hypertension or arrhythmias, especially in clients with gestational hypertension. Continuous maternal cardiac assessment helps detect adverse effects early and adjust treatment accordingly.
Choice C rationale: Evaluating platelet count before induction is important in clients with gestational hypertension due to the risk of HELLP syndrome, which involves thrombocytopenia. Normal platelet levels range from 150,000 to 400,000/mm³; low levels increase bleeding risk during labor and delivery. Knowing platelet status guides safe management decisions, including anesthesia options and readiness for potential hemorrhagic complications.
Choice D rationale: Assessing for aspirin sensitivity is crucial because aspirin is often used in pregnancy for preeclampsia prevention. Aspirin hypersensitivity can lead to allergic reactions or exacerbation of asthma. Since the client has gestational hypertension, determining aspirin tolerance before administering medications is necessary to prevent adverse drug reactions and ensure safe pharmacologic management.
Choice E rationale: Reviewing the client’s history for heart disease documentation is vital as gestational hypertension increases cardiovascular risk. Preexisting heart conditions can complicate labor induction and oxytocin administration due to possible cardiac overload or arrhythmias. A comprehensive cardiac history ensures appropriate monitoring and interventions to prevent maternal and fetal complications during labor.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering a rubella immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated because the rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus vaccine. There is a theoretical risk of viral transmission to the fetus, which could lead to congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should occur postpartum to protect future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale
Breastfeeding is not contraindicated after receiving the rubella vaccine. Although rubella vaccine virus can be excreted in breast milk, it generally does not cause clinical illness in the infant and passive transfer of antibodies may provide some protection to the infant.
Choice C rationale
A rubella titer of 1: indicates a low level of rubella antibodies, meaning the client is susceptible to rubella infection. A titer of less than 1: or 1: is generally considered non-immune, requiring vaccination to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Repeating a rubella titer in the third trimester is not a standard practice for assessing susceptibility. Once susceptibility is determined, the primary intervention is postpartum vaccination. The initial titer result accurately reflects immune status and further testing during pregnancy is unnecessary.
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