A nurse is caring for a child who has otitis media with eﬀusion. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations indicates a tympanic membrane rupture.

Popping sensation when swallowing

Green-blue discharge in the ear canal

Sudden pain relief

Increased temperature

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A: A popping sensation when swallowing is not a sign of a tympanic membrane rupture, as it is a normal phenomenon that occurs when the eustachian tube opens and closes to equalize the pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. A popping sensation when swallowing may be associated with otitis media with eﬀusion, which is a condition that causes ﬂuid accumulation behind the eardrum, but it does not indicate a rupture.

Choice B: Green-blue discharge could be indicative of infection but is not as directly related to the rupture event as the sudden pain relief is.

Choice C: The correct answer is sudden relief of pain. This is because the rupture of the tympanic membrane releases the pressure and fluid that has built up in the middle ear, leading to an immediate decrease in pain.

Choice D: An increased temperature is not a sign of a tympanic membrane rupture, as it is a nonspecific symptom that may indicate various conditions, such as inﬂammation, infection, or fever. An increased temperature may be associated with otitis media with eﬀusion, which is a condition that causes ﬂuid accumulation behind the eardrum, but it does not indicate a rupture.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is a therapeutic response that acknowledges the parent's feelings and provides reassurance that the behavior is normal and temporary. The other responses are either dismissive, judgmental, or self-disclosing, which are not helpful for the parent.
Choice B reason: This is a judgmental response that implies that the parent is overreacting or has unrealistic expectations for their child.
Choice C reason: This is a dismissive response that minimizes the parent's concern and does not offer any support
or information.
Choice D reason: This is a self-disclosing response that shifts the focus from the parent to the nurse and does not
address the issue at hand.

A. Shingles B. Valley fever C. Athlete's foot D. Fever blister

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: Shingles is a viral infection that causes a painful rash, usually on one side of the body. It is caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox. Shingles is not related to tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection.

Choice B: Valley fever is a fungal infection that aﬀects the lungs and can cause ﬂu-like symptoms, such as fever, cough, and chest pain. It is caused by inhaling spores from a fungus that grows in dry soil. Valley fever is not related to tinea pedis, which aﬀects the skin of the feet.

Choice C: Athlete's foot is a common name for tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection that aﬀects the skin between the toes and on the soles of the feet. It can cause itching, burning, scaling, and cracking of the skin. Athlete's foot is contagious and can be spread by direct contact or by sharing shoes, socks, or towels.

Choice D: Fever blister is another name for a cold sore, which is a small blister that forms on or near the lips. It is caused by a type of herpes virus that can be transmitted by kissing or sharing utensils. Fever blister is not related to tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection.

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A nurse is caring for a child who has otitis media with eﬀusion. The nurse should identify which of the following manifestations indicates a tympanic membrane rupture.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has croup and wet the bed overnight. When the parents visit the next day, the nurse explains the situation and one of the parents says, "She never wets the bed at home. I am so embarrassed." Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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