A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Obtain an influenza vaccine annually
Take glyburide with breakfast
Administer glucagon for hyperglycemia
Inject insulin in the deltoid muscle
The Correct Answer is A
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Individuals with type 1 diabetes require insulin therapy to manage their blood sugar levels. Since the question is about teaching an adolescent with type 1 diabetes, let's analyze each option:
A) Obtain an influenza vaccine annually:
This is a crucial recommendation. People with diabetes, including type 1 diabetes, have a higher risk of complications from infections, including influenza (the flu). The flu can lead to elevated blood sugar levels and potentially worsen diabetes control. Getting an annual influenza vaccine helps reduce the risk of getting the flu and its associated complications.
B) Take glyburide with breakfast:
Glyburide is a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, not type 1 diabetes. It stimulates the pancreas to produce more insulin. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a lack of insulin production, so taking glyburide would not be appropriate.
C) Administer glucagon for hyperglycemia:
Glucagon is a hormone used to raise blood sugar levels, typically in cases of severe hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is not used to treat hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) in type 1 diabetes. Instead, insulin administration is the primary method for managing high blood sugar levels.
D) Inject insulin in the deltoid muscle:
Insulin injections for individuals with type 1 diabetes are typically given in the subcutaneous fat, which is found just beneath the skin. The deltoid muscle is not a recommended site for insulin injections due to inconsistent absorption. The abdomen, thighs, and buttocks are commonly recommended injection sites.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) A step-wise approach will be used to reduce the dosage gradually.
Explanation:
After a certain period of seizure control, a healthcare provider may consider gradually tapering and discontinuing anti-seizure medications in consultation with the child's neurologist. This is often done in a step-wise manner to monitor the child's condition and minimize the risk of seizure recurrence. Stopping anti-seizure medications abruptly can increase the risk of seizures returning. Therefore, the response provided in option A is the most accurate and relevant to the situation.
The other options are incorrect:
B) Your child will always suffer seizures:
This statement is not accurate, as some children with epilepsy can achieve long-term seizure control with appropriate treatment. Epilepsy management varies from person to person, and many individuals can experience extended periods of seizure freedom.
C) This is always a hereditary disorder:
Epilepsy can have both genetic and non-genetic causes. While there are genetic forms of epilepsy, not all cases are hereditary. Epilepsy can be caused by a variety of factors, including brain injuries, infections, and other medical conditions.
D) Only her male offspring will experience seizures:
Epilepsy does not discriminate based on gender. Both males and females can be affected by epilepsy. This statement is not accurate and does not reflect the reality of epilepsy as a medical condition.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D"}
Explanation
Pilonidal dimpling with the presence of an abnormal tuft of hair in or near the dimple
Explanation:
Spina bifida is a congenital condition where there is incomplete closing of the backbone and membranes around the spinal cord during early development in the womb. Pilonidal dimpling with the presence of an abnormal tuft of hair in or near the dimple is a specific sign of spina bifida. This condition is called "sacral dimple," and it can indicate an underlying issue with the spinal cord and nerves. An abnormal tuft of hair in or near the dimple suggests a neural tube defect, which is characteristic of spina bifida.
Why the other choices are incorrect:
A. complete paralysis:
Complete paralysis is a severe neurological symptom but it is not specific to spina bifida. It can occur due to various other conditions as well, such as spinal cord injuries, infections, and neurological disorders. It's not a characteristic sign of spina bifida.
B. Petechiae:
Petechiae are small, red or purple spots on the skin that are caused by bleeding under the skin. They are usually associated with bleeding disorders, infections, or other medical conditions. Petechiae are not a characteristic sign of spina bifida.
C. Abnormal Vital Signs:
While spina bifida can potentially lead to neurological complications that might influence vital signs, the presence of abnormal vital signs is a non-specific symptom. Abnormal vital signs could be caused by a wide range of medical conditions, and they are not directly indicative of spina bifida.
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