A nurse is planning care for an adolescent who has scoliosis and requires surgical intervention.
Which of the following behaviors by the adolescent should the nurse anticipate because it is the most common reaction?
Body image changes.
Loss of privacy.
Feelings of displacement.
Identity crisis.
The Correct Answer is A
Adolescents affected by scoliosis often experience body image dissatisfaction.
Therefore, the nurse should anticipate body image changes as the most common reaction.
Choice B is not correct because loss of privacy is not the most common reaction
when dealing with scoliosis surgery.
Choice C is not correct because feelings of displacement are not the most
common reaction when dealing with scoliosis surgery.
Choice D is not correct because identity crisis is not the most common reaction
when dealing with scoliosis surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
An epiphyseal fracture is a fracture that occurs in the epiphyseal plate, which is the layer of cartilage between the end of a long bone and the start of the bone shaft.
This type of fracture is most common in children and adolescents, as their bones are still growing and the epiphyseal plate is not yet fused to the bone shaft.
Because this is where new bone develops, injuries to this area can cause the plate to close prematurely, jeopardizing bone growth.
Choice B, “Bone marrow can be lost through the fracture,” is incorrect because
bone marrow is not lost through an epiphyseal fracture.
Choice C, “The younger the child the longer the healing process will take,” is incorrect because younger children generally heal faster than older children or adults.
Choice D, “The blood supply to the bone is disrupted,” is incorrect because an
epiphyseal fracture does not necessarily disrupt the blood supply to the bone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer ischoice C.
Choice A rationale:
A lead level of 10 mcg/dL is above the CDC’s reference value of 3.5 mcg/dL and would require more immediate follow-up and intervention, not just rescreening in one year.
Choice B rationale:
A lead level of 18 mcg/dL is significantly elevated and would necessitate immediate medical intervention and frequent monitoring, rather than waiting a year for rescreening.
Choice C rationale:
A lead level of 4 mcg/dL is slightly above the CDC’s reference value of 3.5 mcg/dL.While it is concerning, it may be appropriate to rescreen in one year if no other risk factors are present.
Choice D rationale:
A lead level of 44 mcg/dL is dangerously high and requires urgent medical treatment and frequent follow-up, not just rescreening in one year.
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