A nurse is caring for a 58-year-old client who is diagnosed with uterine cancer. Which of the following manifestations is likely to be reported by this client?
Postmenopausal bleeding
Green, malodorous vaginal discharge
Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse
Swelling on the posterior of the vulva
The Correct Answer is A
A. One of the most common and concerning symptoms of uterine (endometrial) cancer is abnormal vaginal bleeding, particularly postmenopausal bleeding. Any bleeding after menopause is considered abnormal and can be an indicator of uterine cancer, warranting further investigation.
B. While a malodorous vaginal discharge can occur due to infections or other gynecological issues, it is not a primary symptom of uterine cancer. Uterine cancer more commonly presents with bleeding rather than discharge.
C. While some women with advanced uterine cancer may experience pelvic pain or pain during intercourse (dyspareunia), this symptom is not as characteristic or early in the disease process. It is more associated with conditions like endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. This is not a typical manifestation of uterine cancer. While vulvar swelling may be seen in cases of vulvar cancer or infections, it is not a common symptom associated with uterine cancer specifically. Symptoms related to uterine cancer primarily focus on abnormal bleeding.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Clopidogrel is not a pain medication; it is an antiplatelet agent used to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events. It should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.
B. Clopidogrel works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. This understanding indicates that the client recognizes the purpose of the medication and its importance in managing their condition after a TIA.
C. Clopidogrel is not used to treat anxiety; it is primarily focused on reducing the risk of thrombotic events. This choice shows a misunderstanding of the medication's purpose.
D. Clopidogrel does not directly control blood pressure; it is used to prevent blood clots. While blood pressure management is essential in the context of stroke prevention, clopidogrel itself does not have a role in lowering blood pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. After intravesical therapy, there may be recommendations to avoid sexual activity for a certain period (often 24 hours) to prevent exposure to the medication by a partner. However, the specifics can vary based on the medication used. Twelve hours might not be sufficient depending on the protocol.
B. Self-catheterization is not routinely required unless there is a specific reason (e.g., urinary retention or difficulty voiding). This statement is not relevant to the therapy itself.
C. Urinating in a sitting position can help ensure more complete emptying of the bladder and can be safer, particularly for women. It also may minimize contact with any residual medication in the bladder, which can be a consideration post-infusion.
D. Patients are usually advised to avoid excessive fluid intake immediately before the infusion to prevent bladder distention during the treatment.
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