A client has a radiation implant inserted for treatment of cervical cancer. Which nurse should be assigned to provide personal care while the radiation source is in the client? The:
60-year-old nurse who is also assigned to provide care to two other clients with internal radiation.
28-year-old pregnant nurse who has special expertise in oncology.
30-year-old female nurse who is experienced with internal radiation.
35-year-old male nurse who has never worked with a client receiving internal radiation.
The Correct Answer is D
A. This nurse is already exposed to a significant amount of radiation and should not be assigned to care for another client with an internal radiation implant.
B. Pregnant women should avoid exposure to radiation. This nurse should not be assigned to care for a client with an internal radiation implant.
C. While this nurse has experience with internal radiation, she is still exposed to radiation. It is preferable to assign a nurse who has no prior exposure to internal radiation.
D. This nurse has no prior exposure to internal radiation and is therefore the best candidate to provide care to the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This value is within the normal range for adult males (14-17.3 g/dL) and borderline for females (11.7- 15.5 g/dL). While the specific context of the patient (e.g., gender) matters, generally, a hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL would not typically cause concern.
B. A platelet count of 150,000/mm³ is at the lower limit of normal (150,000-450,000/mm³). While this may be concerning in certain clinical contexts, it is still within the acceptable range and would not typically raise alarm for a post-op nephrectomy patient unless there are other indications of bleeding or clotting issues.
C. This white blood cell count is elevated (normal range is 4.5-11.1 x 10³/mm³). An elevated WBC count can indicate an infection, inflammation, or a response to surgery, which is particularly concerning post- operatively. This result would warrant further investigation to rule out infection, which is critical for recovery.
D. The neutrophil percentage of 59% is within the normal range (typically around 40-70% for total WBCs). While it is slightly elevated, it is not concerning on its own without additional context, especially since it may be elevated in response to surgery or stress.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Bacitracin is an antibiotic ointment typically used to prevent or treat bacterial infections in minor cuts and scrapes. It is not appropriate for treating a pruritic rash associated with GVHD. The rash may not be due to an infection but rather an immune response, so using bacitracin would not address the underlying issue.
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and hydroxyzine are antihistamines that can help alleviate itching and provide relief from pruritus. Requesting a prescription for one of these medications is an appropriate response to manage the symptoms of GVHD.
C. Showering with cool water can soothe irritated skin and reduce itching. Using mild soap helps to avoid further irritation or dryness that harsher soaps can cause. This intervention supports skin care and helps manage pruritus effectively.
D. Clipping fingernails can help prevent skin damage from scratching, which could lead to secondary infections. Encouraging the use of prescribed lotions can help keep the skin moisturized and alleviate dryness, further addressing the pruritus associated with GVHD.
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