A client has a radiation implant inserted for treatment of cervical cancer. Which nurse should be assigned to provide personal care while the radiation source is in the client? The:
60-year-old nurse who is also assigned to provide care to two other clients with internal radiation.
28-year-old pregnant nurse who has special expertise in oncology.
30-year-old female nurse who is experienced with internal radiation.
35-year-old male nurse who has never worked with a client receiving internal radiation.
The Correct Answer is D
A. This nurse is already exposed to a significant amount of radiation and should not be assigned to care for another client with an internal radiation implant.
B. Pregnant women should avoid exposure to radiation. This nurse should not be assigned to care for a client with an internal radiation implant.
C. While this nurse has experience with internal radiation, she is still exposed to radiation. It is preferable to assign a nurse who has no prior exposure to internal radiation.
D. This nurse has no prior exposure to internal radiation and is therefore the best candidate to provide care to the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. While it may be prescribed for certain patients at risk for stroke, it is not typically the first-line medication for managing TIA or hyperlipidemia. It is more often used in patients with specific types of atrial fibrillation or mechanical heart valves.
B. Simethicone is an anti-foaming agent used to relieve gas and bloating. It does not have any role in managing hyperlipidemia or preventing strokes. Thus, this option is not relevant to the client's condition.
C. Simvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, including stroke. For a client with hyperlipidemia and a history of TIA, simvastatin would be an appropriate medication to help manage cholesterol and decrease the risk of future ischemic events.
D. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used for anticoagulation, often in the context of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. It may not be the first choice for TIA management. While it has its uses in preventing clot formation, it is not the standard treatment for a patient who has had a TIA.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An ischemic stroke occurs when a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain is obstructed. Common symptoms include sudden numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg, confusion, difficulty speaking, and visual disturbances. However, "thunderclap" headache and neck stiffness are not typical symptoms of an ischemic stroke.
B. A TIA, often referred to as a "mini-stroke," produces similar symptoms to a stroke but lasts for a short duration (typically less than 24 hours) and does not cause permanent damage. Symptoms can include weakness, speech difficulties, and visual changes, but again, "thunderclap" headache and neck stiffness are not characteristic of a TIA.
C. A subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs when there is bleeding into the space between the brain and the tissues covering it, often due to a ruptured aneurysm. A "thunderclap" headache, described as an extremely sudden and severe headache, is a hallmark of this condition.
D. A cardioembolic stroke is a type of ischemic stroke that occurs when a blood clot forms in the heart and travels to the brain. Symptoms are similar to those of an ischemic stroke and do not typically include a "thunderclap" headache or neck stiffness.
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