A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old male client. The parent states, "He has started playing with dolls since our baby was born. Does this indicate he will identify as a female as he grows up?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You will also find he will want to wear girts clothes, including dresses, as well”
"Gender identity is generally not established until the child is around five years old”
"At two years of age, toddlers often engage in play that imitates adult actions."
"When a male toddler chooses to play with dolls, it is an indication he will later identify as a female."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "You will also find he will want to wear girls' clothes, including dresses, as well.": This response incorrectly assumes that playing with dolls predicts future behavior regarding gender expression, which is not accurate. It also may cause unnecessary worry for the parent.
B. "Gender identity is generally not established until the child is around five years old.": While partially true, this response does not directly address the parent's concern about the current behavior. It misses the opportunity to explain that imitating caregiving is a normal developmental stage.
C. "At two years of age, toddlers often engage in play that imitates adult actions.": This response correctly explains that toddlers naturally mimic the behavior they observe in adults, including caregiving activities, without it indicating future gender identity. Play is a normal part of development at this age.
D. "When a male toddler chooses to play with dolls, it is an indication he will later identify as a female.": This statement is inaccurate and misleading. A toddler’s choice of toys reflects curiosity and imitation, not a prediction of future gender identity or roles.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ask the client to identify what made them upset: The first action should be to assess and de-escalate the situation using therapeutic communication. Asking the client to verbalize their feelings can help reduce agitation, promote self-awareness, and prevent escalation.
B. Assist the client with understanding their needs: Helping the client understand their needs is important but comes after first addressing and calming their immediate emotional agitation through assessment and supportive conversation.
C. Place the client in seclusion: Seclusion is a last-resort intervention when the client poses a danger to themselves or others and less restrictive measures have failed. It should not be the first action without attempting de-escalation techniques.
D. Administer lorazepam IM: Administering medication is appropriate if non-pharmacological interventions fail. However, medication should not be the first response before attempting verbal de-escalation strategies in an agitated client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Place the client on bedrest: While limiting the client’s activity is important to reduce oxygen demand, it is not the first priority. Immediate actions should focus on improving oxygenation and reducing respiratory distress.
B. Obtain the client's ABG levels: Although obtaining arterial blood gases provides valuable information about oxygenation and acid-base balance, it does not address the immediate need to relieve the client's breathing difficulty and hypoxia.
C. Elevate the head of the client's bed: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the first action to reduce dyspnea and ease the client’s breathing. It is a simple, quick intervention that can stabilize the client while further assessments are conducted.
D. Prepare the client for a ventilation-perfusion scan: A V/Q scan may be indicated to diagnose conditions like pulmonary embolism, but it is a diagnostic step that follows stabilization. Immediate efforts must first focus on ensuring adequate oxygenation and respiratory support.
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