. A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. The client had one 8-oz cup of coffee 3 oz of juice, and 12 oz of soda. The client's water pitcher had 800 mL and 200 mL remain. The client also had IV fluids infusing at 40 mL/hr via an IV pump. How many mL should the nurse document as the client's total intake for the shift?
The Correct Answer is ["1","610"]
Coffee: 8 oz × 30 mL/oz = 240 mL
Juice: 3 oz × 30 mL/oz = 90 mL
Soda: 12 oz × 30 mL/oz = 360 mL
Water consumed: 800 mL - 200 mL = 600 mL
IV fluids: 40 mL/hr × 8 hr = 320 mL
Total intake = Coffee + Juice + Soda + Water consumed + IV fluids
Total intake = 240 mL + 90 mL + 360 mL + 600 mL + 320 mL = 1,610 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 2.0 mg: This notation indicates two milligrams, which is not equivalent to two tenths of a milligram.
B. 0.2 mg: This is the proper way to write two tenths of a milligram.
C. .2 mg: While it may be understood, it is not the preferred notation because it lacks a leading zero, which can lead to misinterpretation.
D. 0.20 mg: This is technically correct but not necessary. It suggests more precision than needed for two tenths and can be misinterpreted as a larger dose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. White blood cell count (WBC): WBC count is not relevant for monitoring anticoagulation therapy.
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
C. Prothrombin time (PT): PT is the test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and is often expressed as an International Normalized Ratio (INR).
D. Platelet count: Platelet count is not used to monitor warfarin therapy.
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