A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is pregnant
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record.
Select 4 findings that the nurse should identify as a potential prenatal complication.
Urine protein
Respiratory rate
Gravida/parity
Urine ketones
Headache
Fetal activity
Blood pressure
Correct Answer : A,E,F,G
- Urine protein: The presence of 3+ proteinuria is a significant finding suggestive of preeclampsia. Protein in the urine indicates renal involvement due to endothelial dysfunction, which is a hallmark complication in hypertensive disorders of pregnancy and needs immediate attention.
- Respiratory rate: A respiratory rate of 16/min falls within the normal adult range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute. There is no evidence of respiratory distress, tachypnea, or bradypnea, so this finding does not suggest a prenatal complication.
- Gravida/parity: Although the client has a history of one preterm birth, gravida and parity alone are not indicators of a current prenatal complication. It is important background information but does not point directly to an acute complication at this time.
- Urine ketones: The absence of ketones in the urine is a normal finding. If ketones were present, it could suggest dehydration, starvation, or uncontrolled diabetes, but since they are negative, ketones are not a concern for prenatal complication here.
- Headache: A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman can signal worsening hypertension or preeclampsia. Persistent headaches are a concerning symptom that warrants immediate evaluation and management to prevent maternal and fetal harm.
- Fetal activity: Decreased fetal movement is a worrisome sign of possible fetal compromise, such as hypoxia or placental insufficiency. Reduced movements require further fetal assessment and monitoring to ensure fetal well-being.
- Blood pressure: A blood pressure reading of 162/112 mm Hg is severely elevated and meets the diagnostic criteria for severe preeclampsia. Uncontrolled hypertension during pregnancy places both the mother and fetus at significant risk for serious complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Provide the client with low-calorie formula: The calorie content of the formula is not typically responsible for diarrhea. Diarrhea is more often related to formula intolerance, contamination, or rapid feeding rates rather than calorie density.
B. Increase the rate of the client's feeding: Increasing the rate can worsen diarrhea by overwhelming the gastrointestinal system, leading to poor absorption and increased fluid loss. Slower rates are often needed if diarrhea occurs.
C. Switch the client to a formula containing less protein: Protein content is usually not the cause of diarrhea. Specialized formulas may be needed for certain conditions, but protein itself is not typically a trigger for diarrhea.
D. Administer the client's formula at room temperature: Cold formula can cause gastric cramping and diarrhea. Administering the formula at room temperature helps reduce gastrointestinal irritation and promotes better tolerance of the feeding.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Serosanguinous drainage on dressing: Serosanguinous drainage, which is a mixture of clear and blood-tinged fluid, is a common and expected finding in the early postoperative period. It typically indicates normal healing unless the amount becomes excessive or the drainage changes character.
B. Hypoactive bowel sounds: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common within the first 24 to 48 hours following surgery, especially after general anesthesia or abdominal procedures. This finding is expected and does not immediately require provider notification unless accompanied by other concerning signs like severe abdominal distention.
C. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr: Urinary output should be at least 30 mL/hr to indicate adequate kidney perfusion and hydration. An output of 25 mL/hr suggests possible hypovolemia, renal impairment, or urinary retention, and it should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation.
D. Pain level of 2 on 0 to 10 scale: A pain score of 2 indicates mild pain, which is manageable and expected after surgery. This level of discomfort does not require urgent reporting to the provider as long as it remains controlled and does not interfere with recovery activities.
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