A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider prescribing to decrease ICP?

Nicardipine

Phenytoin

Dopamine

Mannitol

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to manage blood pressure but does not directly reduce ICP.
B. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures, which may occur after a hemorrhage, but it does not address increased ICP.
C. Dopamine is used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output but does not play a role in reducing ICP.
D. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps decrease ICP by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thus relieving pressure within the skull. It is the most appropriate intervention for managing increased ICP.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The right groin area is not the site of the procedure, so placing a sandbag here would not help control bleeding or pressure.
B. The sandbag should be placed over the left groin area where the femoral artery was accessed during the angiography. This helps apply pressure to prevent bleeding from the site and promote clot formation.
C. The right ankle is irrelevant to the procedure and would not require pressure.
D. Similarly, the left ankle has no relation to the femoral angiography site.

A. Family history B. Sedentary Lifestyle C. Smoking D. Diabetes E. Hypertension

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Family history is a non-modifiable risk factor as it cannot be changed or controlled.
B. A sedentary lifestyle is a modifiable risk factor; increasing physical activity can reduce the risk of heart disease.
C. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor; quitting smoking can significantly decrease the risk of heart disease.
D. Diabetes can be managed and controlled through lifestyle changes and medication, making it a modifiable risk factor.
E. Hypertension is also a modifiable risk factor; it can be managed through diet, exercise, and medication.

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A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has a subarachnoid hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider prescribing to decrease ICP?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]

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