A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has a history of heart failure.
Which of the following findings require immediate follow-up by the nurse? Select all that apply.
Neurological assessment
Vital signs
Basic Metabolic Profile (BMP) laboratory report
Cardiac enzymes laboratory report
B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) laboratory report
Respiratory assessment
Correct Answer : B,D,E,F,G
A. Neurological assessment: The neurological assessment indicates the client is alert and oriented, which is good; however, it does not require immediate follow-up.
B. Vital signs: The vital signs indicate an elevated heart rate (138/min), elevated respiratory rate (28/min), and borderline low blood pressure (96/75 mm Hg). These findings suggest potential hemodynamic instability and require immediate attention to assess the underlying cause and determine the appropriate interventions.
C. Basic Metabolic Profile (BMP) laboratory report: The BMP is largely within normal limits except for the glucose level (148 mg/dL), which is slightly elevated but not critically so. There is no urgent need for follow-up based on the BMP findings unless other symptoms arise.
D. Cardiac enzymes laboratory report: The troponin level is elevated (10.1 ng/mL), indicating myocardial injury, which requires immediate follow-up to assess the risk of acute coronary syndrome or worsening heart failure. This is a critical finding that warrants further evaluation.
E. B-natriuretic peptide (BNP) laboratory report: The BNP level is significantly elevated at 800 ng/mL, indicating worsening heart failure. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's condition and determine appropriate management strategies.
F. Respiratory assessment: The respiratory assessment shows an elevated respiratory rate (28/min) and oxygen saturation at 93% on supplemental oxygen. The presence of pink-tinged sputum may indicate pulmonary congestion or possible pulmonary edema, necessitating immediate follow-up.
G. ECG report: The ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response (RVR) at a rate of 135/min. This irregular heart rate can lead to decreased cardiac output and increased risk of thromboembolic events, requiring immediate follow-up to manage the heart rate and rhythm appropriately.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Valve disorder: While valve disorders can cause fatigue and dyspnea, the client’s history of hypertension, tachycardia, hypercholesteremia, and medication noncompliance are more suggestive of heart failure rather than a valve disorder.
B. Asthma: Asthma typically presents with wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. It is less likely to be the cause of symptoms in this scenario, where cardiac conditions and medication noncompliance are noted.
C. Pulmonary embolism: While pulmonary embolism can cause dyspnea and tachycardia, the client's chronic cardiovascular history and edema are more consistent with heart failure than an acute pulmonary embolism.
D. Heart failure: The client has a history of hypertension, tachycardia, and hypercholesteremia, along with medication noncompliance, tachycardia, and edema. These are classic signs of heart failure, making this the most likely diagnosis
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Popliteal: Checking the popliteal pulse bilaterally is generally safe, as it does not carry the risk of compromising blood flow to the brain.
B. Brachial: Checking the brachial pulse bilaterally is safe and does not compromise circulation to vital organs.
C. Femoral: The femoral pulse can be checked bilaterally without causing significant issues.
D. Carotid: Checking the carotid pulse bilaterally can reduce blood flow to the brain and lead to syncope (fainting), so it should be avoided. Palpating one carotid artery at a time is the correct approach.
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