A nurse is assisting in the care of a client.

Admission Assessment.

1500: Client transferred from postanesthesia care unit, following a left lung lobectomy.

Client alert and oriented to person, place, time,. and situation.

Reports pain as 3 on a scale of 0 to 10. Dressing dry and intact to left chest.

Water seal chest tube drainage system has 100 mL sanguineous drainage.

Right lung sounds clear.

Left lung sounds diminished.

For each potential nursing action, click to specify if the potential action is. indicated or contraindicated for the client who has a chest tube.

Choice A rationale:

Wave hands to attract the attention of law enforcement. Rationale: This is not recommended during an active shooter situation. Waving hands to attract attention may draw the shooter's focus towards you. It's generally safer to stay quiet and hidden rather than trying to signal law enforcement.

Choice B rationale:

Move wounded clients to a safe area before finding shelter. Rationale: While it's important to provide assistance to wounded clients, moving them during an active shooter situation may not be advisable. It can put both the wounded and those attempting to help them at risk. The priority is to find a safe place and take cover while awaiting law enforcement.

Choice C rationale:

Turn cellular phones to silent mode. Rationale: This is the correct action to take. Turning cellular phones to silent mode helps maintain silence and prevent the phone from ringing or vibrating, potentially alerting the shooter to your location. It's essential to maintain silence and avoid drawing attention during an active shooter situation.

Choice D rationale:

Attempt to bargain with the shooter. Rationale: Attempting to bargain with the shooter is not a recommended action. Engaging with the shooter can escalate the situation and put lives at risk. The best course of action is to hide, stay quiet, and await law enforcement intervention.

The correct answer is choice B and C.

Choice A rationale:

Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.

Choice B rationale:

The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.

Choice C rationale:

Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.

Choice D rationale:

Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.

Choice E rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.