A nurse is assessing a patient who has been taking sertraline for 2 weeks.
Which finding should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
The patient’s legs are not swollen.
The patient reports an improvement in mood.
The patient’s blood pressure is within the expected range.
The patient reports a recent weight loss.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While swelling in the legs can be a side effect of some medications, it is not a measure of the effectiveness of sertraline. Sertraline is an antidepressant, and its effectiveness would be measured by improvements in mood and behavior.
Choice B rationale
An improvement in mood is a key indicator that the sertraline is effective. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression and other mood disorders. It works by increasing the amount of serotonin, a natural substance in the brain that helps maintain mental balance.
Choice C rationale
While it’s important to monitor blood pressure in patients taking any medication, a blood pressure within the expected range is not specifically an indication of the effectiveness of sertraline.
Choice D rationale
Weight loss is not a primary indicator of the effectiveness of sertraline. While some patients may experience weight changes while taking this medication, it is not a measure of its effectiveness in treating depression or other mood disorders.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Vitamin K is not the antidote for heparin. It is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, which is a vitamin K antagonist.
Choice B rationale
Iron is not related to the reversal of heparin. It is a mineral that is crucial for many bodily functions, including the transport of oxygen in the blood.
Choice C rationale
Glucagon is a hormone that raises the level of glucose in the blood. It is not used as an antidote for heparin.
Choice D rationale
Protamine is the correct choice. Protamine sulfate is a drug that reverses the anticoagulant effects of heparin by binding to it and forming a stable complex, thereby neutralizing its anticoagulant activity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Urinary retention refers to the inability to empty the bladder completely. While it can cause discomfort and bloating, it does not typically result in dark amber, cloudy urine with an unpleasant odor.
Choice B rationale
Urinary incontinence is the loss of bladder control, leading to the involuntary leakage of urine. It does not cause the urine to become dark amber, cloudy, or have an unpleasant odor.
Choice C rationale
A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection in any part of the urinary system — kidneys, bladder, urethra. Most UTIs are caused by bacteria, but they can also be caused by viruses or fungi. Symptoms of a UTI often include cloudy, dark, or strong-smelling urine.
Choice D rationale
Urinary frequency refers to needing to urinate more often than usual. It can be a symptom of many different issues, including a UTI, but on its own, it does not cause the urine to become dark amber, cloudy, or have an unpleasant odor.
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