A nurse is caring for a toddler who has acute laryngotracheobronchitis and has been placed in a cool mist tent. Which of the following findings would indicate that the treatment has been effective?
Decreased stridor
Decreased temperature
Barking cough
Improved hydration
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Acute laryngotracheobronchitis, also known as croup, is a common childhood condition that is usually caused by a viral infection. The main symptom is a distinctive barking cough. A cool mist tent can help to soothe the inflamed airways and reduce stridor, which is a high-pitched,
wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow. Therefore, decreased stridor would indicate that the treatment has been effective.
Choice B rationale
While a decreased temperature might indicate a resolution of any underlying infection, it is not directly related to the effectiveness of a cool mist tent in treating acute laryngotracheobronchitis.
Choice C rationale
A barking cough is a symptom of acute laryngotracheobronchitis and does not indicate treatment effectiveness.
Choice D rationale
Improved hydration is important but is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of the cool mist tent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Lower quadrant pain is a common symptom of many conditions, including ectopic pregnancy. However, it does not specifically indicate the presence of blood in the peritoneum.
Choice B rationale
Cullen’s sign, which is the appearance of bruising in the skin around the umbilicus, is a sign of blood in the peritoneum. It can occur in conditions such as a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
Goodell’s sign is a softening of the cervix that typically occurs early in pregnancy. It does not indicate the presence of blood in the peritoneum.
Choice D rationale
Chadwick’s sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia that occurs in early pregnancy. It does not indicate the presence of blood in the peritoneum.
Correct Answer is ["4"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Identify the dose ordered and the dose available. The dose ordered is 40 mg and the dose available is 10 mg/mL.
Step 2 is: Set up the equation to calculate the volume to administer: (40 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL) = 4 mL.
So, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose.
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