A nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis.
Which of the following signs would be most indicative of meningitis?
Positive Brudzinski’s sign.
Positive Babinski’s sign.
Positive Romberg’s sign.
Positive Murphy’s sign.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A positive Brudzinski’s sign is indicative of meningitis. It involves involuntary lifting of the legs when the neck is flexed, suggesting meningeal irritation.
Choice B rationale
A positive Babinski’s sign indicates central nervous system pathology but is not specific to meningitis. It involves dorsiflexion of the big toe when the sole of the foot is stimulated.
Choice C rationale
A positive Romberg’s sign indicates issues with proprioception and balance but is not specific to meningitis. It involves swaying or falling when standing with eyes closed.
Choice D rationale
A positive Murphy’s sign indicates gallbladder inflammation (cholecystitis) and is not related to meningitis. It involves pain on palpation of the right upper quadrant during inspiration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
It takes about 14 days to develop antibodies and immunity to the disease after vaccine administration. This is why the patient is asked to return in 2 to 3 weeks for an antibody titer. The immune system needs time to respond to the vaccine and produce detectable levels of antibodies.
Choice B rationale
The laboratory running out of blood specimen tubes is not a valid reason for delaying the antibody titer. This choice does not provide an accurate explanation for the patient.
Choice C rationale
It takes about 14 days to develop antibodies, not antigens, and immunity to the disease after vaccine administration. This choice contains incorrect information about the immune response.
Choice D rationale
After receiving the vaccine, the patient is not likely to transmit the communicable disease to the laboratory. This choice does not provide a valid reason for delaying the antibody titer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing coronary artery constriction by giving aspirin is a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation and improving blood flow in the coronary arteries. This helps to alleviate chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Increasing afterload for the left ventricle to maximize cardiac output is not a desirable objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing afterload would increase the workload on the heart, which is counterproductive in patients with angina. The goal is to reduce the heart’s workload and improve blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Increasing preload to reduce overall cardiac workload is not a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing preload would increase the volume of blood returning to the heart, potentially worsening symptoms. The focus is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving coronary perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Reducing arterial inflammation by administering statins is a long-term strategy for managing cardiovascular disease, but it is not the immediate objective in managing unstable angina.
Statins help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce inflammation, but the immediate goal in unstable angina is to relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
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