A nurse is reviewing a client’s complete blood count (CBC) and notes an RBC count of 3.5 million/mm³ and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 102 mm³. Based on these values, the most appropriate action for the nurse would be to:
Administer vitamin B12 to increase RBC size.
Administer vitamin B12 to restore normal RBC maturation.
Administer medication to decrease RBC size.
Administer iron to increase the formation of hemoglobin molecules.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Administering vitamin B12 to increase RBC size is not appropriate in this scenario. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency. The goal is to restore normal RBC maturation, not to increase RBC size.
Choice B rationale
Administering vitamin B12 to restore normal RBC maturation is the appropriate action. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
Administering vitamin B12 will help restore normal RBC maturation and correct the anemia.
Choice C rationale
Administering medication to decrease RBC size is not appropriate in this scenario. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency. The goal is to restore normal RBC maturation, not to decrease RBC size.
Choice D rationale
Administering iron to increase the formation of hemoglobin molecules is not appropriate in this scenario. The elevated MCV indicates macrocytic anemia, which is often due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron supplementation is typically used for microcytic anemia, not macrocytic anemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) and peripheral edema are common clinical manifestations of right heart failure (RHF). RHF leads to congestion of systemic circulation, causing fluid accumulation in the liver and peripheral tissues.
Choice B rationale
Crackles in the lungs are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary edema.
Choice C rationale
A dry hacking cough is not a typical symptom of right heart failure. It is more commonly associated with respiratory conditions such as asthma or bronchitis.
Choice D rationale
Altered mentation with pinpoint pupils is not a characteristic of right heart failure. These symptoms are more indicative of neurological conditions or opioid overdose.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing coronary artery constriction by giving aspirin is a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation and improving blood flow in the coronary arteries. This helps to alleviate chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Increasing afterload for the left ventricle to maximize cardiac output is not a desirable objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing afterload would increase the workload on the heart, which is counterproductive in patients with angina. The goal is to reduce the heart’s workload and improve blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Increasing preload to reduce overall cardiac workload is not a primary objective in managing unstable angina. Increasing preload would increase the volume of blood returning to the heart, potentially worsening symptoms. The focus is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand and improving coronary perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Reducing arterial inflammation by administering statins is a long-term strategy for managing cardiovascular disease, but it is not the immediate objective in managing unstable angina.
Statins help to lower cholesterol levels and reduce inflammation, but the immediate goal in unstable angina is to relieve chest pain and prevent myocardial infarction.
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