Which acute event is most likely to occur in a patient who has chronic atrial fibrillation?
Cerebral ischemia due to an embolus that originates in the left atrium.
Development of ventricular fibrillation.
Ischemia of the cerebellum due to a ruptured intracranial aneurysm.
Prolonged capillary refill secondary to a complete lack of cardiac output.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Cerebral ischemia due to an embolus that originates in the left atrium is a common complication of chronic atrial fibrillation (AFib). AFib causes irregular and chaotic electrical signals in the atria, leading to poor blood flow and the formation of blood clots. These clots can travel to the brain, causing a stroke. This is the most acute and severe event associated with chronic AFib.
Choice B rationale
Development of ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia that can occur in patients with severe heart disease, but it is not a common acute event in chronic AFib.
Ventricular fibrillation involves the ventricles and is characterized by rapid, erratic electrical impulses, leading to ineffective heart contractions and sudden cardiac arrest.
Choice C rationale
Ischemia of the cerebellum due to a ruptured intracranial aneurysm is not directly related to chronic AFib. While AFib increases the risk of stroke, it does not specifically cause aneurysms or cerebellar ischemia. Aneurysms are typically related to other risk factors such as hypertension and vascular abnormalities.
Choice D rationale
Prolonged capillary refill secondary to a complete lack of cardiac output is a sign of severe cardiac dysfunction or shock. While AFib can lead to heart failure and reduced cardiac output, it does not typically cause a complete lack of cardiac output. The most acute event related to AFib is the formation of emboli and subsequent stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antihypertensive medication as prescribed is the priority action for a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache, blurred vision, and confusion.
These symptoms suggest a hypertensive crisis, which requires immediate blood pressure reduction to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Preparing the client for a lumbar puncture is not the priority action in this scenario. While a lumbar puncture may be necessary to rule out other conditions, the immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Choice C rationale
Initiating seizure precautions is important if the client is at risk of seizures, but the priority action is to address the hypertensive crisis by administering antihypertensive medication.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring the client’s blood glucose levels is important for overall health management, but it is not the priority action in this scenario. The immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypersplenism is a condition often associated with cirrhosis, where the spleen becomes overactive. This leads to the destruction of blood cells, causing anemia (low red blood cells), leukopenia (low white blood cells), and thrombocytopenia (low platelets)1.
Choice B rationale
Peptic ulcer disease primarily affects the stomach and duodenum, leading to ulcers and bleeding. It does not typically cause anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia in the context of cirrhosis.
Choice C rationale
Cholecystitis is the inflammation of the gallbladder, usually due to gallstones. It does not cause the blood cell abnormalities seen in cirrhosis.
Choice D rationale
Esophageal varices are swollen veins in the esophagus that develop due to portal hypertension in cirrhosis. While they can cause bleeding, they do not directly cause anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.
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