A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing profuse vomiting.
Upon admission, the client's vital signs were within the expected reference range, but now the client's blood pressure is 86/58 mm Hg, his pulse is 114/min and weak, and his respiratory rate is 27/min.
The client appears restless and anxious and states that he thinks he is dying.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Administer a vasoconstrictor.
Increase the IV infusion rate.
Elevate the client's feet.
Initiate oxygen therapy.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Administering a vasoconstrictor is a potential intervention for shock but it is not the first action. The client's hypotension and tachycardia are indicative of hypovolemic shock due to profuse vomiting, leading to fluid loss. The body's initial compensatory mechanism involves vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure, so further constriction without addressing the volume deficit can worsen tissue perfusion.
Choice B rationale
The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock, including a low blood pressure of 86/58 mmHg, a high pulse of 114/min, and a high respiratory rate of 27/min. These are physiological compensations for reduced circulating blood volume. Increasing the intravenous infusion rate directly addresses the primary problem by rapidly replacing lost fluid volume, thereby increasing preload, stroke volume, cardiac output, and ultimately, blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Elevating the client's feet can temporarily increase venous return to the heart and improve blood pressure. However, this is a passive measure that does not address the underlying fluid deficit causing the hypovolemic shock. It is a helpful adjunctive action but is not the definitive first-line intervention required to correct the circulatory collapse in this scenario.
Choice D rationale
Initiating oxygen therapy is a supportive measure for shock because it helps improve tissue oxygenation, which is compromised due to poor perfusion. While beneficial, it does not correct the root cause of the shock, which is the lack of circulating fluid volume. The most immediate and life-saving intervention is to restore fluid volume to improve cardiac output and blood pressure
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Severe preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, often accompanied by seizures (eclampsia). The client is at high risk for seizures, which can cause falls and injury. Ensuring the side rails are up is a critical safety measure to protect the client from falling out of bed during a seizure episode. This precaution is part of seizure protocols and is essential for client safety in this high-risk condition.
Choice B rationale
Ambulation is contraindicated for clients with severe preeclampsia. They are at high risk for seizures and should be on strict bed rest to minimize physical activity and stress, which can elevate blood pressure and increase the risk of a seizure. Bed rest also helps to improve placental perfusion, which is often compromised in preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
In a client with severe preeclampsia, fetal well-being is a major concern. The client should have continuous or frequent fetal monitoring, not just twice daily. The compromised placental perfusion can lead to fetal distress, and frequent monitoring, such as nonstress tests or biophysical profiles, is necessary to detect any signs of distress and intervene promptly.
Choice D rationale
A low-protein diet is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Preeclampsia often causes proteinuria, a loss of protein in the urine, which can lead to low serum albumin levels. A high-protein diet is often encouraged to replace the lost protein and maintain oncotic pressure, which helps to reduce edema.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Its mechanism of action involves blocking aldosterone receptors in the kidney's distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, leading to increased sodium and water excretion while retaining potassium. Consequently, taking a potassium supplement concurrently would dangerously increase the risk of hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high blood potassium levels (normal range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L), which can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
Choice B rationale
Spironolactone's primary effect is on sodium and potassium balance, not calcium. Calcium supplements do not typically interact with spironolactone in a way that would cause a significant, adverse change in calcium levels. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid supplements that directly alter the electrolytes affected by the medication's mechanism of action.
Choice C rationale
Spironolactone does not significantly impact iron metabolism. Therefore, a client taking an iron supplement would not be at increased risk of an adverse interaction. Iron supplements are generally well-tolerated with spironolactone, and there is no contraindication for their concurrent use. The focus of client teaching should be on electrolytes directly affected by the medication.
Choice D rationale
Spironolactone does not have a direct or clinically significant interaction with magnesium supplements. While diuretics can sometimes affect magnesium levels, spironolactone's primary action is on potassium and sodium. Therefore, there is no major contraindication for the use of magnesium supplements, unlike the life-threatening risk associated with potassium supplementation. *.
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