A nurse is assessing a client who is brought to the emergency room with burn injuries. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a deep partial-thickness burn?
The burned area is yellow in color with severe edema.
The burned area is black in color and pain is absent.
The burned area is pink in color with blisters present.
The burned area is red in color with soft eschar present.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: The burned area is yellow in color with severe edema is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a superficial partial-thickness burn. A superficial partial-thickness burn involves the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis, causing pain, redness, swelling, and blistering.
Choice B Reason: The burned area is black in color and pain is absent is not a finding of a deep partial-thickness burn, but a full-thickness burn. A full-thickness burn involves the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues, causing necrosis, charred skin, and loss of sensation.
Choice C Reason: This description aligns with a superficial partial-thickness (first-degree or mild second-degree) burn rather than a deep partial-thickness burn. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and the upper portion of the dermis. These burns appear pink or red, often accompanied by moisture and blister formation due to fluid leakage from damaged capillaries. They are painful because nerve endings remain intact. Healing occurs within 10 to 21 days without significant scarring.
Choice D Reason: Deep partial-thickness burns extend deeper into the dermis, damaging a larger portion of skin structures, including sweat glands and hair follicles. These burns typically appear red or white and may have a soft eschar (dead tissue), which differentiates them from more superficial burns that do not develop eschar. Unlike full-thickness burns, nerve endings remain partially intact, so the patient may still experience some pain. These burns take more than 21 days to heal and often require skin grafting to prevent complications such as contractures or hypertrophic scarring.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a drop in heart rate from 74 to 68/min is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. A mild decrease in heart rate can be normal or due to other factors such as medication, sleep, or relaxation. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer because a change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 10 is a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to the provider. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a tool that measures the level of consciousness based on eye-opening, verbal response, and motor responses. A score of 14 indicates mild impairment, while a score of 10 indicates moderate impairment. A decrease in score can indicate deterioration of neurological status and increased intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the headache is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Headache is a common symptom of mild TBI and can be managed with analgesics, rest, and hydration. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is severe, persistent, or accompanied by other signs such as vomiting, confusion, or seizures.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because diplopia is not a manifestation that requires immediate reporting to
the provider. Diplopia means double vision and can be caused by damage to cranial nerves or eye muscles due to TBI. It can be treated with eye patches, glasses, or surgery. It does not indicate a worsening of brain injury or increased intracranial pressure unless it is associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, loss of vision, or eye pain.
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