A client with a newborn asks about the lesion on her child's head. After assessing the skin, which response will the nurse offer to the client?
This is a vascular tumor that often goes away over time
This lesion will spread
This is caused by scarring from the birth process
This is a precancerous lesion and your child will need a referral to a dermatologist
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is correct because the lesion on the child's head is most likely a hemangioma, which is a benign tumor of blood vessels that appears as a red or purple mark on the skin. Hemangiomas are common in newborns and usually grow during the first year of life, then shrink and fade over several years. The nurse should reassure the client that hemangiomas are harmless and do not require treatment unless they interfere with vision, breathing, or feeding.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the lesion on the child's head will not spread, but rather grow and shrink within a limited area. The nurse should not alarm the client by suggesting that the lesion will spread to other parts of the body or become malignant. The nurse should explain that hemangiomas are not contagious or infectious and do not affect the child's overall health or development.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the lesion on the child's head is not caused by scarring from the birth process, but rather by abnormal growth of blood vessels in the skin. The nurse should not confuse or misinform the client about the cause of the lesion. The nurse should explain that hemangiomas are not related to trauma, infection, or genetics, but rather to unknown factors that influence blood vessel formation during fetal development.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the lesion on the child's head is not a precancerous lesion and does not need a referral to a dermatologist. The nurse should not scare or mislead the client by suggesting that the lesion is a sign of cancer or requires further evaluation or treatment. The nurse should explain that hemangiomas are benign and usually resolve on their own without any complications or sequelae.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Slow even breathing is not a sign of Cushing's Triad, which is a late indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The breathing pattern may be altered due to brainstem compression, but not necessarily slow or even.
Choice B Reason: This is a correct answer because bradycardia and bounding pulse are part of Cushing's Triad, which reflects an increased vagal tone and decreased cardiac output due to increased ICP.
Choice C Reason: Systolic hypotension with a narrowing pulse pressure is not a sign of Cushing's Triad, which involves an increased systolic blood pressure and a widened pulse pressure due to increased ICP. Hypotension may occur due to shock or hemorrhage, but not as a result of increased ICP.
Choice D Reason: This is a correct answer because irregular respirations are part of Cushing's Triad, which reflects impaired respiratory control due to brainstem compression from increased ICP. The respirations may be Cheyne-Stokes, central neurogenic hyperventilation, apneustic, or ataxic.
Choice E Reason: Tachycardia and bounding pulse are not signs of Cushing's Triad, which involves bradycardia and bounding pulse due to increased ICP. Tachycardia may occur due to pain, anxiety, fever, or hypoxia, but not as a result of increased ICP.
Choice F Reason: This is a correct answer because systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure are part of Cushing's Triad, which reflects an increased cerebral perfusion pressure due to increased ICP. The diastolic blood pressure remains stable or decreases, resulting in a widened pulse pressure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Hemorrhage is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a possible cause of it. Hemorrhage can occur due to trauma or rupture of blood vessels in or around the spinal cord, leading to compression and damage of the nerve tissue.
Choice B Reason: This is the correct choice. Spinal shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within minutes to hours after the injury. It is characterized by loss of sensation, motor function, reflexes, and autonomic function below the level of injury. It is caused by transient disruption of nerve conduction and synaptic transmission in the spinal cord.
Choice C Reason: Apoptosis is not a complication of an acute spinal cord injury, but rather a cellular process that occurs after it. Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs in response to injury or stress. It can lead to further loss of neurons and glial cells in the spinal cord over time.
Choice D Reason: Neurogenic shock is a complication of an acute spinal cord injury that occurs within hours to days after the injury. It is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and peripheral vasodilation due to loss of sympathetic tone and unopposed parasympathetic activity. It is caused by disruption of autonomic pathways in the spinal cord.
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