A nurse is assisting a client with a visual impairment to use the restroom. Which of the following actions will the nurse take to prevent complications?
Increase her voice when speaking to the client
Lower the bed rails before lowering the bed
Use hand gestures to point to where the client will walk
Stand slightly in front and to one side of the client
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because increasing her voice when speaking to the client may not prevent complications, but rather annoy or offend the client. The nurse should not assume that a client with a visual impairment has a hearing impairment as well unless it is confirmed by assessment or history. The nurse should speak in a normal tone and volume and identify herself by name and role.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because lowering the bed rails before lowering the bed may increase the risk of complications, such as falls or injuries. The nurse should keep the bed rails up until the client is ready to get out of bed and lower them only when necessary. The nurse should also lock the wheels of the bed and adjust it to a comfortable height for the client.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because using hand gestures to point to where the client will walk may not prevent complications, but rather confuse or frustrate the client. The nurse should not use visual cues or gestures that are meaningless to a client with a visual impairment. The nurse should use verbal directions and descriptions instead, such as "The restroom is on your left, about 10 steps away."
Choice D reason: This is correct because standing slightly in front and to one side of the client can prevent complications, such as collisions or falls. The nurse should guide the client by offering her arm or shoulder for support and walking slightly ahead of him or her. The nurse should also warn the client about any obstacles or changes in terrain, such as stairs, doors, or rugs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because atrial fibrillation is the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Atrial fibrillation is an irregular and rapid heart rate that causes poor blood flow and blood pooling in the heart chambers. This can lead to the formation of blood clots that can travel to the brain and block an artery, causing an embolic stroke.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because hypertension is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Hypertension is high blood pressure that puts stress on the blood vessels and increases the risk of bleeding or rupture. This can lead to a hemorrhagic stroke, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because diabetes is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar levels and damages the blood vessels and nerves. This can lead to poor circulation and increased risk of infection and ulcers, but not an embolic stroke.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because alcohol abuse is not the risk factor that puts the client at
the highest risk for embolic stroke. Alcohol abuse is excessive consumption of alcohol that affects liver function and blood clotting factors. This can lead to liver disease and bleeding disorders, but not an embolic stroke.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Requesting the charge nurse put the client on the surgery schedule is not the best first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. The client may have a perforated appendix, which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice B Reason: Documenting the WBC count from the morning labs is not the best first action, as it does not address the client's current condition. The WBC count may be elevated due to inflammation or infection, but it does not indicate the severity of the problem.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct choice. Notifying the healthcare provider is the best first action, as it alerts them to the possibility of a perforated appendix and allows them to order appropriate tests and treatments.
Choice D Reason: Providing an antiemetic is not the best first action, as it does not address the underlying cause of the vomiting. The client may have peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity due to leakage of intestinal contents. An antiemetic may mask this symptom and delay diagnosis and treatment.
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