A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis and notes that when passively flexing the client's neck, there is an involuntary flexion of both legs. Which of the following conditions is the client displaying?
Bradykinesia
Brudzinski's sign
Kernig's sign
Nuchal rigidity
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason : Bradykinesia refers to the slowness of movement and is commonly associated with Parkinson's disease, not meningitis. It is characterized by a gradual loss of spontaneous movement and can affect the ability to initiate and continue movements¹.
Choice B reason : Brudzinski's sign is a clinical sign that suggests meningitis when neck flexion causes reflex flexion of the hips and knees. It occurs due to meningeal irritation caused by spinal cord movement or nerves against the meninges¹. This sign is considered positive when passive flexion of the neck results in reflex flexion of the hips and knees, indicating meningeal irritation².
Choice C reason : Kernig's sign is another clinical sign used to evaluate for meningitis. It involves extending and straightening one knee while the individual lies on their back with their hips and knees bent at a 90-degree angle. A positive Kernig’s sign indicates pain or resistance when the leg is extended, which suggests meningitis³. However, it is not the condition described in the scenario.
Choice D reason : Nuchal rigidity is an inability to flex the neck forward due to rigidity of the neck muscles. While it is a sign of meningitis, it does not involve the involuntary flexion of the legs as described in the scenario. Nuchal rigidity is typically assessed by attempting to flex the patient's neck forward while they are in a supine position⁴.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Benzodiazepines are not typically used for the long-term treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder due to the risk of dependence and because other medications, such as SSRIs, are more effective for long-term management⁵.
Choice B reason : Benzodiazepines are effective for the short-term management of panic attacks due to their rapid onset of action, which can quickly alleviate acute symptoms of anxiety and panic⁵⁹.
Choice C reason : Long-term treatment of agoraphobia generally involves psychotherapy and SSRIs or SNRIs rather than benzodiazepines, which can lead to dependence and are not recommended for long-term use⁵.
Choice D reason : Benzodiazepines are not the first-line treatment for depression and are generally not used for this purpose. Antidepressants and psychotherapy are the standard treatments for depression⁵.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason : Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body get rid of excess water without causing potassium loss. Therefore, a decreased potassium level would not be expected.
Choice B reason : Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (increased potassium levels) and hyponatremia (decreased sodium levels) because it causes the kidneys to excrete sodium while retaining potassium.
Choice C reason : A decreased phosphate level is not a typical finding associated with spironolactone use. Phosphate levels are more commonly affected by renal function and parathyroid hormone levels.
Choice D reason : A decreased chloride level is not specifically associated with spironolactone. While electrolyte imbalances can occur, spironolactone primarily affects potassium and sodium balance.
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