A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis and notes that when passively flexing the client's neck, there is an involuntary flexion of both legs. Which of the following conditions is the client displaying?

Choice A reason : Benzodiazepines are not typically used for the long-term treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder due to the risk of dependence and because other medications, such as SSRIs, are more effective for long-term management⁵.

Choice B reason : Benzodiazepines are effective for the short-term management of panic attacks due to their rapid onset of action, which can quickly alleviate acute symptoms of anxiety and panic⁵⁹.

Choice C reason : Long-term treatment of agoraphobia generally involves psychotherapy and SSRIs or SNRIs rather than benzodiazepines, which can lead to dependence and are not recommended for long-term use⁵.

Choice D reason : Benzodiazepines are not the first-line treatment for depression and are generally not used for this purpose. Antidepressants and psychotherapy are the standard treatments for depression⁵.

Choice A reason : While morphine IV can be used to alleviate pain and anxiety, it is not the first-line intervention for a pulmonary embolism. The primary concern in pulmonary embolism is to address the impaired gas exchange and potential hypoxemia¹.

Choice B reason : Starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's may be part of the overall management but is not the immediate priority. The initial focus should be on stabilizing the client's respiratory status¹.

Choice C reason : Initiating cardiac monitoring is important for observing the client's heart function, as pulmonary embolism can lead to strain on the heart. However, the first intervention should be to ensure adequate oxygenation¹.

Choice D reason : Administering oxygen therapy is the most critical initial intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen therapy helps to manage hypoxemia and reduce the workload on the heart by improving oxygen saturation levels¹.