A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis and notes that when passively flexing the client's neck, there is an involuntary flexion of both legs. Which of the following conditions is the client displaying?

Bradykinesia

Brudzinski's sign

Kernig's sign

Nuchal rigidity

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason : Bradykinesia refers to the slowness of movement and is commonly associated with Parkinson's disease, not meningitis. It is characterized by a gradual loss of spontaneous movement and can affect the ability to initiate and continue movements¹.

Choice B reason : Brudzinski's sign is a clinical sign that suggests meningitis when neck flexion causes reflex flexion of the hips and knees. It occurs due to meningeal irritation caused by spinal cord movement or nerves against the meninges¹. This sign is considered positive when passive flexion of the neck results in reflex flexion of the hips and knees, indicating meningeal irritation².

Choice C reason : Kernig's sign is another clinical sign used to evaluate for meningitis. It involves extending and straightening one knee while the individual lies on their back with their hips and knees bent at a 90-degree angle. A positive Kernig’s sign indicates pain or resistance when the leg is extended, which suggests meningitis³. However, it is not the condition described in the scenario.

Choice D reason : Nuchal rigidity is an inability to flex the neck forward due to rigidity of the neck muscles. While it is a sign of meningitis, it does not involve the involuntary flexion of the legs as described in the scenario. Nuchal rigidity is typically assessed by attempting to flex the patient's neck forward while they are in a supine position⁴.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: The statement that the antidote for warfarin is protamine is incorrect. The primary antidote for warfarin is Vitamin K, and in cases of significant bleeding, prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) or fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be used¹². Protamine is used as an antidote for heparin, not warfarin¹.

Choice B reason: Observing the client for manifestations of hemorrhage is a critical nursing action when administering warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and one of the major risks associated with its use is bleeding. The nurse should monitor for signs such as unusual bruising, petechiae, hematuria, tarry stools, or any other indications of internal or external bleeding⁷⁸.

Choice C reason: Monitoring the client's aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is not typically associated with warfarin therapy. Warfarin's effect is monitored through the prothrombin time (PT) and the International Normalized Ratio (INR), not aPTT, which is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy⁴⁵.

Choice D reason: Warfarin should not be administered along with NSAIDs without careful consideration and monitoring due to the increased risk of bleeding. NSAIDs can affect platelet function and gastrointestinal mucosa, leading to an elevated risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taken with warfarin¹¹¹².

A. Decreased potassium level B. Decreased sodium level C. Decreased phosphate level D. Decreased chloride level

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason : Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body get rid of excess water without causing potassium loss. Therefore, a decreased potassium level would not be expected.

Choice B reason : Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (increased potassium levels) and hyponatremia (decreased sodium levels) because it causes the kidneys to excrete sodium while retaining potassium.

Choice C reason : A decreased phosphate level is not a typical finding associated with spironolactone use. Phosphate levels are more commonly affected by renal function and parathyroid hormone levels.

Choice D reason : A decreased chloride level is not specifically associated with spironolactone. While electrolyte imbalances can occur, spironolactone primarily affects potassium and sodium balance.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis and notes that when passively flexing the client's neck, there is an involuntary flexion of both legs. Which of the following conditions is the client displaying?

Nursing Test Bank

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