A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume deficit. The nurse should expect which of the following findings?
Increased BUN
Increased urine ketones
Decreased urine specific gravity
Decreased Hgb
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is correct because BUN stands for blood urea nitrogen, which is a waste product of protein metabolism that is excreted by the kidneys. Increased BUN indicates fluid volume deficit, as the blood becomes more concentrated and the kidneys have less fluid to filter. A normal BUN level is 7 to 20 mg/dL. The nurse should monitor the client's fluid intake and output, weight, and serum electrolytes, and administer fluids as ordered.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because urine ketones are not related to fluid volume deficit, but to diabetic ketoacidosis, which is a complication of diabetes mellitus that occurs when the body breaks down fat for energy and produces ketones as a by-product. Increased urine ketones indicate diabetic ketoacidosis, which can cause
dehydration, acidosis, and coma. A normal urine ketone level is negative or trace. The nurse should monitor the client's blood glucose, pH, and bicarbonate levels, and administer insulin and fluids as ordered.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because urine specific gravity is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the urine. Decreased urine specific gravity indicates fluid volume excess, as the urine becomes more diluted and the kidneys excrete more fluid. A normal urine specific gravity range is 1.005 to 1.030. The nurse should monitor the client's fluid balance, vital signs, and edema, and administer diuretics as ordered.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because Hgb stands for hemoglobin, which is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. Decreased Hgb indicates anemia, which is a condition that occurs when the blood has a low number of red blood cells or hemoglobin. Anemia can cause fatigue, weakness, and pallor. A normal Hgb level for adult males is 14 to 18 g/dL and for adult females is 12 to 16 g/dL. The nurse should monitor the client's oxygen saturation, iron level, and blood transfusion needs, and administer iron supplements or erythropoietin as ordered.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is correct because phosphorus is a mineral that is essential for bone health, energy metabolism, and acid-base balance. Hypophosphatemia is a low level of phosphorus in the blood, which can cause muscle weakness, bone pain, and confusion. The nurse should request a dietitian consult for selecting foods high in phosphorus, such as dairy products, meat, fish, eggs, nuts, and beans.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because poultry, peanuts, and seeds are foods that are high in phosphorus, not low. The nurse should not instruct the patient to avoid these foods, as they can help increase the serum phosphorus level and prevent further complications of hypophosphatemia.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because aluminum hydroxide antacids are medications that can lower the serum phosphorus level by binding to phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract and preventing its absorption. The nurse should not provide aluminum hydroxide antacids as prescribed, as they can worsen the patient's condition and cause aluminum toxicity. The nurse should consult with the provider about alternative medications for treating stomach ulcers that do not affect phosphorus levels.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because sodium phosphate is a medication that can raise the serum phosphorus level by providing supplemental phosphorus. The nurse should not instruct the patient to avoid the intake of sodium phosphate, as it can help correct hypophosphatemia and restore normal phosphorus balance. The nurse should administer sodium phosphate as ordered and monitor the patient's serum phosphorus level and renal function.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because widening of the QRS complex is a sign of severe hyperkalemia, which is a high level of potassium in the blood. A normal QRS complex duration is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. Hyperkalemia can cause depolarization and repolarization abnormalities in the cardiac cells, leading to delayed ventricular conduction and widened QRS complexes. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, electrocardiogram, and serum potassium level, and administer medications or dialysis as ordered.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because shortening of P-wave duration is not related to hyperkalemia or polystyrene sulfonate. A normal P-wave duration is 0.06 to 0.12 seconds. The P wave represents atrial depolarization and contraction. Hyperkalemia can cause flatening or disappearance of the P wave, but not shortening. Polystyrene sulfonate is a medication that binds to potassium in the gastrointestinal tract and removes it from the body through feces.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because reduction of T-wave amplitude is a sign of effective treatment of hyperkalemia with polystyrene sulfonate. A normal T-wave amplitude is 0.5 mV or less. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization and relaxation. Hyperkalemia can cause peaked or tented T waves, which indicate increased excitability and risk of ventricular fibrillation. Polystyrene sulfonate lowers the serum potassium level and normalizes the T wave.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because restoration of QRS complex amplitude is not related to hyperkalemia or polystyrene sulfonate. A normal QRS complex amplitude is 5 to 30 mm in standard leads and 10 to 20 mm in precordial leads. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization and contraction. Hyperkalemia does not affect the QRS complex amplitude significantly, but can cause widening or merging with the T wave in severe cases. Polystyrene sulfonate does not affect the QRS complex amplitude directly, but can prevent further widening or merging.
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