A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder.

Alteration in the contour of the joint.

Positive Tinel's sign.

Negative drop arm test.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder is a common finding in clients with a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that stabilize the shoulder joint and facilitate its movement. When these muscles or tendons are injured, movements such as lifting the arm away from the body (abduction) can become painful and difficult.

Choice B reason:
Alteration in the contour of the joint is not typically associated with a rotator cuff injury. This finding is more indicative of conditions that cause changes in the bone structure, such as arthritis or dislocation.

Choice C reason:
A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, particularly in conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome. It is not a test used to assess rotator cuff injuries.

Choice D reason:
A negative drop arm test would suggest that the client does not have a rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by having the client lift the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the client can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the client cannot control the descent of the arm, would indicate a rotator cuff injury.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Telling a client that they will be at an increased risk of breast cancer due to fibrocystic breast changes would be incorrect. Fibrocystic breast changes are not directly linked to an increased risk of breast cancer. While the presence of complex fibrocystic changes may slightly elevate the risk, fibrocystic breasts themselves are a common and benign condition.

Choice B reason:
It is not accurate to say that the manifestations of fibrocystic breasts often get worse after menopause. In fact, fibrocystic changes are related to hormone levels, and most women experience relief from these symptoms after menopause when hormone levels decline.

Choice C reason:
Stating that menopause won't have any effect on the manifestations is also incorrect. Menopause typically leads to a decrease in hormone levels, which are associated with fibrocystic breast changes. Therefore, most women see an improvement in their symptoms after menopause.

Choice D reason:
The most appropriate response is that the manifestations usually go away after menopause. Fibrocystic breast changes are linked to hormonal fluctuations, and after menopause, when these fluctuations cease, the symptoms of fibrocystic breasts typically resolve.

A. "The symptoms can get worse with penile penetration during intercourse." B. "A sensation of pressure in the pelvis can occur." C. "Low back pain can occur frequently." D. "Feces can be present in the vagina."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
The statement that symptoms can worsen with penile penetration during intercourse is partially correct. While sexual activity may exacerbate feelings of bulging or discomfort associated with uterine prolapse, it does not typically worsen the prolapse itself⁹. Painful intercourse, known as dyspareunia, is a common symptom of pelvic organ prolapse, which includes uterine prolapse.

Choice B reason:
Feeling a sensation of pressure in the pelvis is a classic symptom of uterine prolapse. As the uterus descends into the vaginal canal, it can create a sensation of fullness or pressure that is often noticeable and uncomfortable for the patient.

Choice C reason:
Low back pain is indeed a symptom that can be associated with uterine prolapse. The weakening of pelvic floor muscles and ligaments that leads to prolapse can also contribute to discomfort in the lower back.

Choice D reason:
The presence of feces in the vagina would not be a direct symptom of uterine prolapse. However, a related condition called rectocele, where the rectum bulges into the vagina, could cause such a symptom. This condition is different from uterine prolapse and would require separate management.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has fibrocystic breasts. The client asks the nurse, "What will happen to my fibrocystic breast changes after menopause?" Which of the following statements is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the manifestations of uterine prolapse. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

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A nurse is creating the plan of care for a client who is immunosuppressed. Which of the following precautions should the nurse include in the plan? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is providing breast self-examination teaching to a client who is menopausal. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the teaching was effective? (Select all that apply.)

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A nurse is caring for a client who is 5 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?