A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder.

Alteration in the contour of the joint.

Positive Tinel's sign.

Negative drop arm test.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder is a common finding in clients with a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that stabilize the shoulder joint and facilitate its movement. When these muscles or tendons are injured, movements such as lifting the arm away from the body (abduction) can become painful and difficult.

Choice B reason:
Alteration in the contour of the joint is not typically associated with a rotator cuff injury. This finding is more indicative of conditions that cause changes in the bone structure, such as arthritis or dislocation.

Choice C reason:
A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, particularly in conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome. It is not a test used to assess rotator cuff injuries.

Choice D reason:
A negative drop arm test would suggest that the client does not have a rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by having the client lift the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the client can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the client cannot control the descent of the arm, would indicate a rotator cuff injury.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
A tingling sensation is not the primary concern when planning preoperative teaching for an amputation due to a severe gangrenous infection. While some patients may experience tingling due to nerve damage or as part of phantom limb sensation, the focus of preoperative teaching should be on managing pain and understanding the recovery process.

Choice B reason:
Telling a patient that their pain will gradually become less severe may be misleading. Post-amputation, patients often experience significant pain, including phantom limb pain, which can be intense and challenging to manage. Preoperative teaching should set realistic expectations about postoperative pain and its management.

Choice C reason:
Phantom pain is a real phenomenon experienced by many amputees, where they feel pain in the amputated limb as if it were still there. It is not merely psychological but has physiological underpinnings related to the nerves and brain's interpretation of signals. Preoperative teaching should include information about phantom limb pain, its potential occurrence, and strategies for managing it.

Choice D reason:
It is unrealistic to suggest that the pain will disappear soon after the amputation. Recovery from an amputation can be a lengthy process, and pain management is a critical component. Patients need to be prepared for the possibility of ongoing pain and the need for pain management strategies postoperatively.

A. Dark hair B. Female gender C. History of chronic skin irritation D. Age 19 to 30 years

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Dark hair is not a recognized risk factor for developing malignant melanoma. Melanoma is more commonly associated with individuals having fair skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes because they have less melanin to protect their skin from UV radiation.

Choice B reason:
While female gender is not a direct risk factor for malignant melanoma, it is important to note that melanoma rates can vary between genders at different ages. Generally, before age 50, melanoma rates are higher in women, but by age 65, rates are twice as high in men.

Choice C reason:
A history of chronic skin irritation or inflammation can potentially increase the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma. Chronic inflammation can lead to DNA damage and contribute to the development of cancerous cells.

Choice D reason:
Age 19 to 30 years is not considered a high-risk age group for malignant melanoma. The risk of melanoma increases with age, and it is most frequently diagnosed in older adults, although it is not uncommon in younger people.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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