A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder.
Alteration in the contour of the joint.
Positive Tinel's sign.
Negative drop arm test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder is a common finding in clients with a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that stabilize the shoulder joint and facilitate its movement. When these muscles or tendons are injured, movements such as lifting the arm away from the body (abduction) can become painful and difficult.
Choice B reason:
Alteration in the contour of the joint is not typically associated with a rotator cuff injury. This finding is more indicative of conditions that cause changes in the bone structure, such as arthritis or dislocation.
Choice C reason:
A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, particularly in conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome. It is not a test used to assess rotator cuff injuries.
Choice D reason:
A negative drop arm test would suggest that the client does not have a rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by having the client lift the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the client can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the client cannot control the descent of the arm, would indicate a rotator cuff injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
This statement is correct. Medications for genital herpes, such as antiviral drugs, can help decrease the severity and frequency of symptoms but do not cure the infection. The herpes simplex virus remains in the body and can cause recurrent outbreaks.
Choice B reason:
This statement is incorrect and indicates a misunderstanding. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus and cannot be treated with antibiotics, which are effective only against bacterial infections. Antiviral medications are used to treat viral infections like genital herpes.
Choice C reason:
This statement is incorrect. Genital herpes can be transmitted to a partner even when lesions are not present. The virus can be shed from the skin even without visible symptoms, a process known as asymptomatic viral shedding.
Choice D reason:
This statement is incorrect. Even after finishing a course of medication, the risk of transmitting genital herpes to a partner remains because the virus persists in the body. Safe sex practices, including the use of condoms, can help reduce the risk of transmission.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
While a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range, it is not typically considered an emergency for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This client would require monitoring and potential adjustment of their diabetes management plan, but it does not necessitate immediate assessment.
Choice B reason:
For a client with diabetes insipidus, an intake of 1,500 mL and an output of 1,600 mL in 24 hours is within expected parameters, considering the condition's characteristic polyuria and polydipsia. This client would need ongoing monitoring to maintain fluid balance but is not the highest priority for immediate assessment.
Choice C reason:
A heart rate of 100/min and tremors in a client with Graves' disease could indicate that their condition is not well-controlled. However, these symptoms are not as acutely concerning as those of a stroke and would be addressed after more urgent needs are met.
Choice D reason:
A client who has had a left-sided stroke and reports a severe headache and confusion is exhibiting signs of a possible acute neurological change or complication, such as increased intracranial pressure or hemorrhage. This client requires immediate assessment and intervention due to the potential for rapid deterioration and life-threatening complications.
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