A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder.

Alteration in the contour of the joint.

Positive Tinel's sign.

Negative drop arm test.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder is a common finding in clients with a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that stabilize the shoulder joint and facilitate its movement. When these muscles or tendons are injured, movements such as lifting the arm away from the body (abduction) can become painful and difficult.

Choice B reason:
Alteration in the contour of the joint is not typically associated with a rotator cuff injury. This finding is more indicative of conditions that cause changes in the bone structure, such as arthritis or dislocation.

Choice C reason:
A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, particularly in conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome. It is not a test used to assess rotator cuff injuries.

Choice D reason:
A negative drop arm test would suggest that the client does not have a rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by having the client lift the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the client can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the client cannot control the descent of the arm, would indicate a rotator cuff injury.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
While the white blood cell (WBC) count is important in assessing the immune system's ability to fight infection, a WBC of 5,000/mm³ is within the normal range (4,500 to 11,000 WBCs/mm³). Therefore, it is not the most critical value for a nurse to prioritize in the care of an HIV patient.

Choice B reason:
A platelet count of 150,000/mm³ is also within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 platelets/mm³). Although thrombocytopenia can occur in HIV, this value does not indicate an immediate concern for the nurse to prioritize.

Choice C reason:
A positive Western blot test confirms the presence of HIV antibodies, which is indicative of HIV infection. However, this is a diagnostic result rather than a laboratory value that reflects the current status of the patient's immune function or disease progression.

Choice D reason:
The CD4-T-cell count is a critical laboratory value for assessing the immune function of a patient with HIV. A count of 180 cells/mm³ is below the normal range of 500 to 1,200 cells/mm³ and indicates a significantly weakened immune system, placing the patient at risk for opportunistic infections. This value is a priority as it guides treatment decisions and the need for prophylaxis against opportunistic infections.

A. The client should receive an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent. B. The client should receive a diet with increased protein. C. The client has an increased risk of infection. D. The client has an increased risk for bleeding.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) is indicated for anemia due to chemotherapy¹. However, the client's hemoglobin (Hgb) level is 12.1 g/dL, which is within the normal range (normal: 12-15.5 g/dL for women). Therefore, administering an ESA is not indicated based on the Hgb level provided.

Choice B reason: A diet with increased protein can be beneficial for patients undergoing chemotherapy as it helps in tissue repair and immune system function. However, the client's albumin level is 4.5 g/dL, which falls within the normal range (normal: 3.4-5.4 g/dL), suggesting adequate protein intake. Thus, there is no indication that the client requires an increased protein diet based on the albumin level provided.

Choice C reason: The client's white blood cell (WBC) count is 1,400/mm³, which is below the normal range (normal: 4,500-11,000/mm³). This condition, known as leukopenia, significantly increases the risk of infection³. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for signs of infection and implementing infection control measures.

Choice D reason: The client's platelet count is 170,000/mm³, which is within the normal range (normal: 150,000-450,000/mm³). Although cisplatin can cause thrombocytopenia, the current platelet count does not indicate an increased risk for bleeding⁴. Therefore, this choice is not correct based on the platelet count provided.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has a rotator cuff injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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