A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 115. Which of the following is the medical term?
Pallor.
Bradypnea.
Tachycardia.
Somnolence.
The Correct Answer is C
A reason: Pallor. Pallor refers to an abnormal paleness of the skin, which can be caused by various conditions such as anemia or shock. It is not related to heart rate.
B reason: Bradypnea. Bradypnea refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate. It is unrelated to heart rate and is not the correct term for describing an elevated heart rate.
C reason: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is the medical term for an abnormally fast heart rate, typically defined as a heart rate over 100 beats per minute. A heart rate of 115 falls into this category, making tachycardia the correct term.
D reason: Somnolence. Somnolence refers to a state of drowsiness or sleepiness. It is not related to heart rate and is not the appropriate term for describing an elevated heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A reason:
A client with diarrhea after taking antibiotics for 10 days for a UTI is not the most appropriate to assign to a private room. While this client may have an infection, diarrhea alone does not typically warrant isolation over other more contagious conditions.
B reason:
A client with abdominal pain and a fever may have an infection, but without more specific symptoms indicating a highly contagious disease, this client does not necessarily require a private room over others with more concerning symptoms.
C reason:
A client with a productive cough that is blood tinged is the most appropriate to assign to the private room. This client could have a highly contagious respiratory infection such as tuberculosis, which requires isolation to prevent the spread of infection to others in the hospital.
D reason:
A client with a wound infection and draining pus-like drainage needs careful management to prevent cross-contamination, but respiratory infections typically take precedence for private rooms due to their high contagion potential.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A reason: A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities. A client who can bear full weight on both lower extremities does not need to use a three-point gait. This gait is designed for individuals who cannot bear weight on one leg, making this choice incorrect for the given scenario.
B reason: A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs. A client with bilateral knee replacements and partial weight bearing needs a different type of gait that distributes weight evenly across both legs. The three-point gait is not suitable for this condition, thus making this choice inappropriate.
C reason: A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg. A three-point gait is specifically used for individuals who are unable to bear weight on one leg. This gait involves using crutches and the unaffected leg to form a tripod, which provides stability while moving. Therefore, this option is the correct choice.
D reason: A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities. A client with bilateral leg braces due to paralysis would require a different gait pattern that accommodates the use of braces and supports for both legs. The three-point gait is not designed for bilateral leg paralysis, making this choice incorrect.
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