A nurse is assessing a client in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Hypomagnesemia
Hyperkalemia
Decreased creatinine level
Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because hypomagnesemia is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hypomagnesemia is a condition in which the serum magnesium level is lower than normal (less than 1.5 mEq/L). It may be caused by various factors such as malnutrition, diarrhea, diuretics, or alcohol abuse. It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, tremors, tetany, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B Reason: This choice is correct because hyperkalemia is a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hyperkalemia is a condition in which the serum potassium level is higher than normal (more than 5 mEq/L). It may be caused by reduced renal excretion of potassium due to decreased urine output (oliguria). It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, paresthesia, bradycardia, or cardiac arrest.
Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect because decreased creatinine level is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys and excreted in urine. A normal creatinine level ranges from 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for men and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for women. In acute kidney injury, creatinine level usually increases due to reduced renal function and impaired clearance of creatinine.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. GFR is a measure of how well
the kidneys filter blood and remove waste products.
A normal GFR range is 90,to 120 mL/min/1.73 m2. In acute kidney injury, GFR usually decreases due to reduced blood flow,to,the kidneys or damage to the glomeruli, which are the tiny blood vessels that filter blood in the kidneys.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Urine output is not a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. On the contrary, urine output should increase as the fluid therapy restores the renal perfusion and function. The nurse should monitor the urine output and ensure that it is at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr for adults and 1 mL/kg/hr for children.
Choice B Reason: Heart rate is a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. A high heart rate is a sign of hypovolemia, which occurs when the burn injury causes fluid loss from the intravascular space. The nurse should monitor the heart rate and expect it to decrease as the fluid therapy replenishes the blood volume and improves the cardiac output.
Choice C Reason: Weight is not a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. On the contrary, weight may increase as the fluid therapy restores the hydration status and corrects the fluid deficit. The nurse should monitor the weight and compare it with the pre-burn weight to evaluate the fluid balance.
Choice D Reason: Blood pressure is not a finding that should decrease with adequate fluid replacement. On the contrary, blood pressure may increase as the fluid therapy restores the vascular tone and improves the tissue perfusion. The nurse should monitor the blood pressure and expect it to increase as the fluid therapy compensates for the fluid loss.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client is not unconscious, as the GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 being the lowest possible score and indicating deep coma or death.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because the client can follow simple motor commands, as the GCS score for best motor response is 5, which means the client can localize pain by moving his limbs away from the source of stimulation.To interpret the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score provided in the scenario:Eye Opening (E): 3 - The client opens their eyes in response to verbal stimuli.Best Verbal Response (V): 5 - The client is oriented and able to engage in coherent conversation.Best Motor Response (M): 5 - The client can localize pain or follow motor commands (depending on additional context). The total GCS score would be 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, indicating a mild level of impairment or responsiveness.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because the client is able to make vocal sounds, as the GCS score for best verbal response is 5, which means the client can orient himself to person, place, and time.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client does not open his eyes when spoken to, as the GCS score for eye opening is 3, which means the client only opens his eyes in response to pain.
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