A nurse is assessing a client who has a pneumothorax with a chest tube in place. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
Crepitus in the area above and surrounding the insertion site
Bubbling of the water in the water seal chamber with exhalation
Eyelets are not visible
Movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because crepitus in the area above and surrounding the insertion site is not a serious finding that requires notification of the provider. Crepitus is a crackling sensation that occurs when air leaks into the subcutaneous tissue. It is usually harmless and resolves on its own.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because bubbling of the water in the water seal chamber with exhalation is a normal finding that indicates that air is being removed from the pleural space. Bubbling should stop when the pneumothorax is resolved.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because eyelets are not visible is not a serious finding that requires notification of the provider. Eyelets are small holes at the end of the chest tube that allow air and fluid to drain from the pleural space. They are usually covered by a dressing and may not be visible.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side is a serious finding that indicates a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening condition that occurs when air accumulates in the pleural space and causes pressure on the mediastinum. The nurse should notify the provider immediately and prepare for needle decompression or chest tube insertion.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because hypomagnesemia is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hypomagnesemia is a condition in which the serum magnesium level is lower than normal (less than 1.5 mEq/L). It may be caused by various factors such as malnutrition, diarrhea, diuretics, or alcohol abuse. It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, tremors, tetany, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B Reason: This choice is correct because hyperkalemia is a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Hyperkalemia is a condition in which the serum potassium level is higher than normal (more than 5 mEq/L). It may be caused by reduced renal excretion of potassium due to decreased urine output (oliguria). It may cause symptoms such as muscle weakness, paresthesia, bradycardia, or cardiac arrest.
Choice C Reason: This choice is incorrect because decreased creatinine level is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys and excreted in urine. A normal creatinine level ranges from 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL for men and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL for women. In acute kidney injury, creatinine level usually increases due to reduced renal function and impaired clearance of creatinine.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is not a common finding in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. GFR is a measure of how well
the kidneys filter blood and remove waste products.
A normal GFR range is 90,to 120 mL/min/1.73 m2. In acute kidney injury, GFR usually decreases due to reduced blood flow,to,the kidneys or damage to the glomeruli, which are the tiny blood vessels that filter blood in the kidneys.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Cause of the burn is not the nurse's priority when assessing the severity of the client's burns. The cause of the burn may indicate the type and duration of exposure, such as thermal, chemical, electrical, or radiation, which can affect the depth and extent of injury. However, these factors are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice B Reason: Age of the client is not the nurse's priority when assessing the severity of the client's burns. The age of the client may influence the response to burn injury, such as healing time, infection risk, and fluid requirements.
However, these factors are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice C Reason: Associated medical history is not the nurse's priority when assessing the severity of the client's burns. The associated medical history may affect the outcome and prognosis of burn injury, such as pre-existing conditions, medications, or allergies. However, these factors are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice D Reason: Location of the burn is the nurse's priority when assessing the severity of the client's burns. The location of the burn can indicate the potential for life-threatening complications, such as airway obstruction, inhalation injury, or impaired circulation. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of respiratory distress, such as stridor, wheezes, or cyanosis, and prepare for endotracheal intubation if needed. The nurse should also monitor for signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome, such as pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulselessness, or paralysis, and report any findings to the provider. The location of the burn can also affect the functional and cosmetic outcomes, such as vision loss, facial disfigurement, or joint contractures. The nurse should provide appropriate wound care, pain management, and rehabilitation as prescribed. Assessing for location of burn is essential to prevent further injury and preserve vital functions.
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