A nurse is analyzing test results for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates a moderate to large pulmonary embolism and the possibility of death?

Tachycardia

Pleural effusion

Respiratory alkalosis

Increased troponin levels

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Tachycardia: Tachycardia is a common early sign of pulmonary embolism caused by hypoxia and sympathetic stimulation. However, it is nonspecific and not a direct indicator of embolism size or mortality risk.
B. Pleural effusion: A small pleural effusion can occur with a pulmonary embolism due to inflammation or infarction, but its presence does not correlate with embolism severity or predict outcomes such as death.
C. Respiratory alkalosis: Respiratory alkalosis is a typical response to hyperventilation in early PE. While common, it does not indicate the extent of the embolism or the risk of mortality and can be seen in mild cases.
D. Increased troponin levels: Elevated troponin indicates right ventricular strain or injury due to a moderate to large pulmonary embolism. This cardiac biomarker is associated with a higher risk of complications and death, signaling hemodynamic stress from the embolic event..

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "Yes, antiviral treatment will ensure that you are less contagious and do not spread influenza to others": While antiviral treatment can reduce the spread of influenza, it is not the primary reason for early initiation. The key reason for starting antiviral therapy early is to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.
B. "No, you should wait for lab confirmation because taking antivirals for a nonviral infection can increase side effects": This is incorrect because antivirals for influenza are specific to the virus and are not used in non-viral infections. Delaying treatment could worsen symptoms.
C. "Yes, antiviral treatments are most effective when they are started within 48 hours of symptom onset": This is the most accurate statement. Antiviral drugs like oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are most effective when taken early, within the first 48 hours of symptom onset, to reduce symptom severity and duration.
D. "No, you should wait for lab confirmation before beginning antiviral treatment, to prevent resistant viruses": Early treatment is essential, and delaying therapy can lead to worsened symptoms or complications. Resistance is a concern, but it is not an immediate issue with influenza antivirals.

A. The elevated blood sugar from my diabetes can cause underlying nerve damage." B. "The older I get, there is less blood flowing to my feet." C. The nerves just go to sleep when I lie down because no message gets from my brain to the spinal cord." D. "The nerve damage may occur for unknown reasons in any individual.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "The elevated blood sugar from my diabetes can cause underlying nerve damage.": Chronic hyperglycemia leads to damage of small blood vessels that nourish peripheral nerves, resulting in nerve dysfunction and symptoms such as tingling, numbness, and burning pain, especially in the feet.
B. "The older I get, there is less blood flowing to my feet.": While aging can reduce circulation, diabetic neuropathy is primarily caused by elevated glucose levels damaging nerves, not just reduced blood flow from age alone.
C. "The nerves just go to sleep when I lie down because no message gets from my brain to the spinal cord.": Peripheral neuropathy is not due to disrupted communication between the brain and spinal cord but from damage to peripheral nerves caused by long-term hyperglycemia.
D. "The nerve damage may occur for unknown reasons in any individual.": Diabetic neuropathy has a clearly defined cause—persistent high blood sugar levels—making it distinct from idiopathic neuropathies, which have no known origin.

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A nurse is analyzing test results for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates a moderate to large pulmonary embolism and the possibility of death?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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