A nurse is reviewing discharge medications with a client who has Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include teaching about the client's anticholinergic agent. Which of the following side effects should the nurse advise the client to report?
Drooling
Anhidrosis
Tremors
Rigidity
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
Drooling is inappropriate. Drooling, also known as sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson's disease due to impaired swallowing and reduced control of the muscles involved in saliva production. Anticholinergic medications can exacerbate dry mouth, which may contribute to drooling. However, drooling is not typically a side effect that would be specifically associated with anticholinergic use.
Choice B Reason:
Anhidrosis is appropriate. Anhidrosis refers to the inability to sweat normally. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit sweating by blocking the action of acetylcholine on sweat glands, leading to decreased sweating and potentially causing hyperthermia. Anhidrosis is a potential side effect of anticholinergic agents and should be reported to the healthcare provider due to the risk of overheating.
Choice C Reason:
Tremors is inappropriate. Tremors are a common symptom of Parkinson's disease and are typically not caused by anticholinergic medications. In fact, anticholinergic agents are often prescribed to help reduce tremors in individuals with Parkinson's disease. Tremors would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Choice D Reason:
Rigidity is inappropriate. Rigidity, or stiffness of the muscles, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease resulting from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. While anticholinergic medications can help alleviate some symptoms of Parkinson's disease, they are not typically associated with rigidity. Rigidity would not be considered an adverse effect that the client should report in the context of anticholinergic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Prothrombin time (PT) is a laboratory test that measures the time it takes for blood to clot is incorrect. While PT may be part of a comprehensive evaluation in some cases, it is not typically the initial diagnostic test performed for a TIA. A TIA is caused by a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain, often due to an embolus or transient blockage in a cerebral artery, rather than a primary disorder of blood clotting.
Choice B Reason:
Complete blood count (CBC) is incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is a common laboratory test that evaluates the cellular components of the blood, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While CBC can provide valuable information about hematological conditions such as anemia or thrombocytosis, it is not specific to diagnosing the cause of a TIA. TIA is primarily a vascular event related to transient ischemia in the brain rather than a disorder of blood cell counts.
Choice C Reason:
Computerized tomography angiography (CTA) is appropriate. CTA is a non-invasive imaging test that combines computed tomography (CT) scanning with contrast dye to visualize blood vessels throughout the body, including those in the brain. CTA can help identify any blockages, narrowing, or abnormalities in the blood vessels supplying the brain, which may be contributing to the TIA. It provides detailed images of the blood vessels' structure and can help guide further management and treatment decisions.
Choice D Reason:
Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is inappropriate. Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is an imaging test that provides detailed images of the heart and major blood vessels using sound waves. While TEE may be indicated in some cases of TIA to evaluate for potential cardiac sources of emboli (blood clots), such as atrial fibrillation or cardiac valve abnormalities, it is not typically the first-line diagnostic test performed in the emergency department setting for evaluating a TIA. Initial imaging studies such as CTA or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain are usually prioritized to assess for acute changes in cerebral blood flow and potential causes of the TIA.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Client responds to name is incorrect. Responding to one's name is a positive sign indicating consciousness and orientation. It suggests that the client's level of consciousness is relatively intact.
Choice B Reason:
Eyes open to painful stimuli is correct. Opening the eyes in response to painful stimuli is a concerning sign, indicating a decrease in consciousness and potentially worsening neurological status. It suggests that the client's level of arousal is diminishing and may indicate a decline in condition.
Choice C Reason:
Client states day of the week is correct. Oriented behavior, such as knowing the day of the week, is a positive sign indicating intact cognition and orientation. It suggests that the client's mental status is relatively preserved.
Choice D Reason:
Client is confused is correct. Confusion is a concerning sign, indicating altered mental status and potentially worsening neurological function. It suggests that the client's cognition is impaired, which may be indicative of a decline in condition.
Choice E Reason:
Client mumbles inappropriate words is correct. Mumbling inappropriate words suggests disorientation and altered mental status, which are concerning signs indicating a decline in neurological function.
Choice F Reason:
Eyes do not open to name is incorrect. Failure to open the eyes in response to verbal stimuli, such as one's name, is a concerning sign indicating a decrease in consciousness and potentially worsening neurological status. It suggests that the client's level of arousal is diminished and may indicate a decline in condition.
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