A nurse is admitting a client who has arthritic pain and reports taking ibuprofen several times daily for 3 years. Which of the following tests should the nurse monitor?

Stool for occult blood

Fasting blood glucose

Serum calcium

Urine for white blood cells

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Monitoring for occult blood in the stool is essential because long-term use of nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a serious complication of chronic NSAID use.
B.   While NSAIDs like ibuprofen can affect renal function and increase the risk of kidney damage, they are not directly associated with alterations in blood glucose levels.
C.   Ibuprofen use is not typically associated with alterations in serum calcium levels
D.   While monitoring urine for white blood cells may be relevant in the context of renal injury, it is not as specific or sensitive as other tests such as urinalysis or renal function tests.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Neurovascular assessment should be the nurse's priority assessment. Postoperative patients, especially those who have undergone orthopedic surgery such as ORIF of the femur, are at risk for neurovascular compromise due to factors such as positioning during surgery, edema, and postoperative pain.
B. Pain assessment is important for overall patient comfort and well-being, but in the immediate postoperative period following ORIF of the femur, neurovascular assessment takes priority.
C. The Braden scale is used to assess a patient's risk for pressure ulcers. While pressure ulcer risk assessment is important for overall patient care, it is not the priority assessment for a patient who is postoperative following ORIF of the femur.
D. The Morse Fall Risk scale is used to assess a patient's risk for falls. While fall risk assessment is important for patient safety, it is not the priority assessment for a patient who is postoperative following ORIF of the femur.

A. Emesis of 250 mL B. Increased respiratory rate to 26/min C. Decreased anxiety D. Decreased urinary output

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can help decrease anxiety and relieve dyspnea in clients with acute heart failure. Therefore, a decrease in anxiety would indicate that the medication has been effective in achieving its intended outcome.
A. Emesis, or vomiting, is not an expected outcome of morphine administration in the context of acute heart failure.
B. While morphine can help alleviate dyspnea, an increased respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress rather than effective symptom relief.
D. Morphine does not directly affect urinary output, and a decrease in urinary output may indicate other issues such as renal dysfunction or fluid overload.

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A nurse is admitting a client who has arthritic pain and reports taking ibuprofen several times daily for 3 years. Which of the following tests should the nurse monitor?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the femur. Which of the following assessment should be the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute heart failure and received morphine IV 30 min ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication was effective?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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