A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing an older adult client whose son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?

Choice A reason: Eliciting the gag reflex is not a valid way to assess cranial nerve III. The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents choking or aspiration by triggering a contraction of the pharyngeal muscles when the back of the throat is stimulated. The gag reflex is mediated by cranial nerves IX and X, not III.

Choice B reason: Checking the pupillary response to light is a reliable way to assess cranial nerve III. The pupillary response to light is a reflex that causes the pupil to constrict when exposed to bright light and dilate when exposed to dim light. This reflex helps to regulate the amount of light that enters the eye and protects the retina from damage. The pupillary response to light is controlled by cranial nerve III, which innervates the sphincter pupillae muscle that constricts the pupil.

Choice C reason: Observing for facial symmetry is not a relevant way to assess cranial nerve III. Facial symmetry is the degree of similarity between the two halves of the face. Facial symmetry can be affected by various factors, such as genetics, aging, or facial nerve palsy. Facial nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control facial expression. Facial nerve palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve VII, not III.

Choice D reason: Testing visual acuity is not a sufficient way to assess cranial nerve III. Visual acuity is the ability to see fine details and distinguish objects at a distance. Visual acuity depends on various factors, such as the clarity of the lens and cornea, the shape of the eyeball, and the function of the retina. Visual acuity is mainly affected by cranial nerve II, which carries visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve III does not directly influence visual acuity, but it does innervate some of the muscles that move the eye and enable binocular vision.

Choice A reason: Droplet precautions are not appropriate for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Droplet precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningitis. Droplet precautions require the use of a surgical mask, eye protection, and gloves when in close contact with the client.

Choice B reason: Protective precautions are not applicable for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Protective precautions are used to protect immunocompromised clients from exposure to pathogens, such as those undergoing chemotherapy, organ transplantation, or stem cell transplantation. Protective precautions require the use of a HEPA filter, a positive pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.

Choice C reason: Contact precautions are not sufficient for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Contact precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by direct or indirect contact with the client or the client's environment, such as Clostridioides difficile, MRSA, or VRE. Contact precautions require the use of gloves and gowns when entering the room and the dedicated use of noncritical patientcare equipment.

Choice D reason: Airborne precautions are the correct type of isolation precautions for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Airborne precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by small respiratory droplets that can remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. Airborne precautions require the use of a respirator, such as an N95 mask, a negative pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.