A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to teach a middle adult client who has a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6 Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to teach the client about first?
Insulin glargine
Regular insulin
Exenatide
Metformin
The Correct Answer is D
A. Insulin glargine:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. However, it is typically not the first-line choice for a client with a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6.
B. Regular insulin:
Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels, but it is not typically the first choice for initial management of metabolic syndrome. It may be considered in certain situations, but other options are often explored first.
C. Exenatide:
Exenatide is a medication that belongs to the class of incretin mimetics and is used to improve blood sugar control. However, it may not be the first choice for initial treatment.
D. Metformin:
This is the correct answer. Metformin is a first-line medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes and is commonly used to manage metabolic syndrome. It helps improve insulin sensitivity and reduce glucose production by the liver.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "You should take this medication on an empty stomach:"
Bumetanide can be taken with or without food. It is not necessary to take it on an empty stomach.
B. "You should monitor for hearing difficulties:"
This is the correct answer. Loop diuretics, including bumetanide, are associated with ototoxicity, which can lead to hearing difficulties or hearing loss. Clients should be instructed to report any changes in hearing.
C. "You should decrease your intake of foods high in potassium:"
Bumetanide can cause potassium loss, but instructing the client to decrease potassium intake may not be appropriate without knowing the client's specific potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the diet or prescribing supplements as needed would be a more individualized approach.
D. "You should take the medication at bedtime:"
Bumetanide is often prescribed in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with increased urination during the night. Taking it at bedtime is not a typical recommendation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
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