A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to teach a middle adult client who has a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6 Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to teach the client about first?
Insulin glargine
Regular insulin
Exenatide
Metformin
The Correct Answer is D
A. Insulin glargine:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. However, it is typically not the first-line choice for a client with a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6.
B. Regular insulin:
Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels, but it is not typically the first choice for initial management of metabolic syndrome. It may be considered in certain situations, but other options are often explored first.
C. Exenatide:
Exenatide is a medication that belongs to the class of incretin mimetics and is used to improve blood sugar control. However, it may not be the first choice for initial treatment.
D. Metformin:
This is the correct answer. Metformin is a first-line medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes and is commonly used to manage metabolic syndrome. It helps improve insulin sensitivity and reduce glucose production by the liver.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hypomagnesemia: While exercise can cause some magnesium loss through sweat, lithium is not specifically associated with magnesium imbalance. The primary concern in this scenario is related to sodium levels due to the impact of both exercise and lithium.
B. Hypokalemia: Exercise might also lead to potassium loss through sweat. However, potassium levels are not specifically affected by lithium in the same way as sodium levels. Hyponatremia is a more significant concern in this context.
C. Hyponatremia: Exercise-induced sodium loss compounded with lithium's potential to disrupt sodium balance increases the risk of hyponatremia. It's essential to monitor sodium levels in individuals on lithium who start new exercise programs.
D. Hypocalcemia: Exercise itself doesn't directly lead to significant calcium imbalances. Additionally, lithium is not associated with disturbances in calcium levels to the extent that it is with sodium levels.
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