A nurse in a provider's office is preparing to teach a middle adult client who has a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6 Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to teach the client about first?
Insulin glargine
Regular insulin
Exenatide
Metformin
The Correct Answer is D
A. Insulin glargine:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. However, it is typically not the first-line choice for a client with a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6.
B. Regular insulin:
Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels, but it is not typically the first choice for initial management of metabolic syndrome. It may be considered in certain situations, but other options are often explored first.
C. Exenatide:
Exenatide is a medication that belongs to the class of incretin mimetics and is used to improve blood sugar control. However, it may not be the first choice for initial treatment.
D. Metformin:
This is the correct answer. Metformin is a first-line medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes and is commonly used to manage metabolic syndrome. It helps improve insulin sensitivity and reduce glucose production by the liver.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Anxiety disorder: Anxiety disorder is generally not a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. However, it's essential to consider the overall health of the individual and potential interactions with medications used to manage anxiety.
B. History of deep-vein thrombosis (Correct Answer): A history of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a significant contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives. Estrogen-containing contraceptives can increase the risk of blood clot formation, and individuals with a history of DVT are at an elevated risk for thrombotic events.
C. Ovarian cysts: Ovarian cysts alone are not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. In fact, oral contraceptives are sometimes prescribed to help regulate menstrual cycles and prevent the formation of certain types of ovarian cysts.
D. Client age of 36 years: Age alone is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives. However, as women age, especially beyond 35 years, healthcare providers may consider other risk factors such as smoking, hypertension, and cardiovascular health when prescribing oral contraceptives.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hydromorphone: This is a potent opioid analgesic and is commonly used for the management of severe pain, especially in cancer patients. It provides strong pain relief and is often used in situations where other pain medications are not sufficient.
B. Aspirin: Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with anti-inflammatory and analgesic properties. While it may be used for pain relief in some situations, it is not typically the first choice for severe pain in pancreatic cancer.
C. Acetaminophen (Caldoler): Acetaminophen is a non-opioid analgesic and antipyretic. It is not as potent as opioids and may not be sufficient for managing severe pain, especially in the context of advanced cancer.
D. Meloxicam: Meloxicam is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is not the first-line choice for severe pain, particularly in cancer patients. Opioid analgesics are generally preferred for managing severe pain in cancer.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.