A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who becomes upset and breaks a chair when a visitor does not arrive. The client remains agitated following initial verbal attempts to calm him down. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Plan with the client for how he can better handle frustration.
Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm.
Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Planning with the client for how he can better handle frustration (option A) is a valuable intervention, but it may not be immediately effective in the midst of heightened agitation. It is better suited for a calmer, more reflective time.
B. Placing the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm (option B) is an option for managing extreme agitation, but it should be used cautiously and as a last resort. Offering medication and attempting verbal de-escalation are generally preferable initial steps.
C. Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
When dealing with a client who is agitated and potentially escalating to a more volatile state, offering an antianxiety medication can be a helpful and immediate intervention to manage acute distress. It can aid in calming the client down and create an environment where other therapeutic interventions can be more effectively implemented.
D. Restraining the client to prevent injury to himself or others (option D) is a highly invasive intervention and should only be considered when there is an imminent risk of harm to the client or others. It is generally not the first choice in managing agitation due to its potential negative impact on the therapeutic relationship and the client's well-being.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Sodium level: Correct. Sodium imbalances can have serious consequences, including neurological symptoms. Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte imbalance seen in anorexia nervosa.
B. Blood pressure: Correct. Abnormal blood pressure, especially low blood pressure, can indicate cardiovascular compromise, which is a concern in severe cases of anorexia nervosa.
C. Respiratory rate: Not selected. While monitoring respiratory rate is important, the client's pallor and capillary refill suggest potential issues with peripheral perfusion, making capillary refill more urgent.
D. Capillary refill: Correct. Prolonged capillary refill time is a measure of peripheral perfusion and may indicate poor tissue perfusion, requiring immediate attention.
E. Glucose level: Not selected. While monitoring glucose levels is important, hypoglycemia might not be an immediate concern in this scenario. The client's neurological symptoms may be more related to electrolyte imbalances.
F. Phosphate level: Not selected. Monitoring phosphate levels is important, but severe abnormalities may not require immediate follow-up unless other critical issues are addressed first.
G. Magnesium level: Not selected. Magnesium imbalances are significant but may not require immediate follow-up unless severe abnormalities are noted.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Dental caries is not a specific complication commonly associated with heroin use. Dental issues may result from other substances or lifestyle factors.
B. Perforation of the nasal septum is a complication associated with the intranasal use of heroin. Chronic snorting or sniffing of heroin can damage the nasal septum, leading to a perforation.
C. Permanent effects on short-term memory loss are more commonly associated with the use of substances like cannabis or certain hallucinogens. Heroin use is not typically linked to permanent effects on short-term memory.
D. Pancreatitis is not a commonly reported complication of heroin use. Pancreatitis is more commonly associated with alcohol use disorder and gallstone-related issues.
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