A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who becomes upset and breaks a chair when a visitor does not arrive. The client remains agitated following initial verbal attempts to calm him down. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Plan with the client for how he can better handle frustration.
Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm.
Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Planning with the client for how he can better handle frustration (option A) is a valuable intervention, but it may not be immediately effective in the midst of heightened agitation. It is better suited for a calmer, more reflective time.
B. Placing the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm (option B) is an option for managing extreme agitation, but it should be used cautiously and as a last resort. Offering medication and attempting verbal de-escalation are generally preferable initial steps.
C. Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
When dealing with a client who is agitated and potentially escalating to a more volatile state, offering an antianxiety medication can be a helpful and immediate intervention to manage acute distress. It can aid in calming the client down and create an environment where other therapeutic interventions can be more effectively implemented.
D. Restraining the client to prevent injury to himself or others (option D) is a highly invasive intervention and should only be considered when there is an imminent risk of harm to the client or others. It is generally not the first choice in managing agitation due to its potential negative impact on the therapeutic relationship and the client's well-being.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Exhibiting clang associations: Correct. Clang associations involve the repetition of words or phrases based on sound rather than meaning and are often seen in manic states.
B. Interacting with others in a flirtatious way: Correct. Manic individuals may exhibit increased social and sexual behaviors, including being flirtatious.
C. Reports sleeping for long periods of time: Incorrect. Manic episodes are typically associated with decreased need for sleep rather than increased. Reports of sleeping for long periods would be more indicative of a depressive episode in bipolar disorder.
D. Talking in rapid continuous speech: Correct. Rapid and continuous speech is a common characteristic of manic episodes in bipolar disorder.
E. Reports spending large sums of money: Correct. Excessive spending is a common manifestation of manic behavior, often without consideration of the consequences.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "I know you can read it yourself, but will you?" This response may escalate the situation and may not effectively address the inappropriate tone. It also has the potential to be perceived as confrontational.
B. "We do this every day. Why are you so angry with me this morning?" This response is somewhat confrontational and may not be as effective in setting clear boundaries. It also focuses on the client's emotion without directly addressing the inappropriate tone.
C. “I expect you to speak to me in a civil tone of voice."
Option C sets clear boundaries and communicates the expectation of respectful communication. Addressing the inappropriate tone of voice is important in working with individuals with borderline personality disorder. It reinforces the importance of maintaining a therapeutic and respectful interaction.
D. "Fine. Here is the schedule. I expect you to be on time for your therapy sessions." While this response provides the information, it doesn't address the issue of the client's disrespectful tone. It's important to address the inappropriate behavior while still providing necessary information.
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