A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who becomes upset and breaks a chair when a visitor does not arrive. The client remains agitated following initial verbal attempts to calm him down. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Plan with the client for how he can better handle frustration.
Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm.
Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Planning with the client for how he can better handle frustration is a valuable intervention, but it may not be immediately effective in the midst of heightened agitation. It is better suited for a calmer, more reflective time.
B. Placing the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm (option B) is an option for managing extreme agitation, but it should be used cautiously and as a last resort. Offering medication and attempting verbal de-escalation are generally preferable initial steps.
C. Offer the client an antianxiety medication.
When dealing with a client who is agitated and potentially escalating to a more volatile state, offering an antianxiety medication can be a helpful and immediate intervention to manage acute distress. It can aid in calming the client down and create an environment where other therapeutic interventions can be more effectively implemented.
D. Restraining the client to prevent injury to himself or others (option D) is a highly invasive intervention and should only be considered when there is an imminent risk of harm to the client or others. It is generally not the first choice in managing agitation due to its potential negative impact on the therapeutic relationship and the client's well-being.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and is not typically used to manage opiate withdrawal. It may help with certain symptoms like insomnia or mild anxiety but is not a primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is commonly used in the treatment of opioid withdrawal. It is a long-acting opioid agonist that helps manage withdrawal symptoms and cravings, providing a more controlled tapering process. Methadone is often used in medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder.
C. Benzodiazepines are not typically used as the first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal. They may be considered in specific situations, such as when there is severe anxiety or agitation, but they are generally not the primary choice due to the risk of dependence.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used in the routine management of opioid withdrawal but rather in emergency situations where opioid overdose is suspected.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. History of kidney disease is not as critical for disulfiram administration. The primary concern is related to hepatic metabolism.
B. When the client last drank alcohol is relevant information, but it is not the most critical factor to consider before administering disulfiram. The primary mechanism of disulfiram is to inhibit the breakdown of acetaldehyde, leading to an unpleasant reaction if alcohol is consumed, regardless of when the client last drank.
C. Whether the client has taken disulfiram before is important information, but it does not take precedence over the assessment of liver function. The history of liver disease is more directly related to the potential risks and adverse effects associated with disulfiram use.
D. History of liver disease is crucial to assess before administering disulfiram because disulfiram is metabolized in the liver. Patients with a history of liver disease may have impaired liver function, and the medication may not be well-tolerated or could exacerbate existing liver issues.
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