A nurse evaluates a client's arterial blood gas values (ABGs): pH 7.1, PaCO2 70 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which intervention does the nurse implement first?
Assess the airway.
Administer prescribed bronchodilators.
Administer prescribed mucolytics.
Provide oxygen.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Assessing the airway is always a priority in any client care situation, especially when there are respiratory abnormalities such as respiratory acidosis. Ensuring a patent airway is crucial to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
B. Bronchodilators are typically used to treat conditions such as bronchoconstriction in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, in the context of respiratory acidosis with an elevated PaCO2, the primary issue is not bronchoconstriction but rather impaired gas exchange due to inadequate ventilation.
C. Mucolytics are medications used to thin mucus and facilitate its removal from the respiratory tract. While they can be beneficial in conditions with thick secretions, they do not address the underlying cause of respiratory acidosis, which is inadequate CO2 elimination.
D. Providing oxygen can help improve oxygenation in clients with respiratory acidosis. However, it is important to note that oxygen alone will not correct the underlying cause of respiratory acidosis (elevated PaCO2). Oxygen therapy is supportive and helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues while other interventions are addressed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Diarrhea can lead to loss of bicarbonate from the body, resulting in metabolic acidosis. The loss of bicarbonate through gastrointestinal fluids causes an imbalance between acids and bases in the body.
B. Salicylates (such as aspirin) can cause metabolic acidosis by several mechanisms, including direct stimulation of the respiratory center in the brainstem (leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis initially) and later causing metabolic acidosis due to increased production of acids like lactic acid and ketoacids.
C. Vomiting can lead to loss of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid), which could initially lead to metabolic alkalosis due to loss of acid.
D. Thiazide diuretics can cause metabolic alkalosis rather than metabolic acidosis. They promote the loss of potassium and hydrogen ions (acid), leading to increased blood pH (alkalosis).
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. A urine output of 20 ml/hr is considered inadequate and may indicate decreased kidney perfusion or function. This client likely needs immediate assessment and intervention to address potential renal complications.
B. A patient with appendix surgery exhibiting a thready pulse and a blood pressure of 90/60 should be followed up immediately, as these signs can indicate shock, which is a medical emergency.
C. An approximated incision indicates that the wound edges are well-aligned and healing is progressing as expected. This does not typically warrant immediate follow-up unless there are signs of infection or other complications.
D. A strong pedal pulse suggests adequate blood flow distal to the surgical site. This is a positive finding and does not typically require immediate follow-up unless there are signs of vascular compromise or other complications.
E. A patient with bladder surgery having bloody urine within the first 12 hours can be expected, but if the bleeding is heavy or increases, it would warrant immediate follow-up.
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