The nurse is caring for a client with a heart rate of 48. His blood pressure is 120/80. Which finding will help the nurse determine the cause of the client's bradycardia?
The client has a fever.
The client has possible hemorrhage or bleeding.
The client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
The client has calcium channel blocker medicate prescribed.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Fever can cause tachycardia (increased heart rate) rather than bradycardia. It is not typically associated with slowing of the heart rate unless there are other complicating factors such as severe infection or medication side effects.
B. Significant blood loss can lead to hypovolemia (low blood volume), which can result in bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism to maintain blood pressure. However, the blood pressure in this scenario is
normal (120/80), which makes severe hemorrhage less likely unless compensated by fluid resuscitation or other factors.
C. COPD can cause chronic hypoxia and respiratory acidosis, which can lead to chronic respiratory compensation and potentially bradycardia. However, COPD alone is less likely to cause bradycardia in the absence of severe exacerbation or other complicating factors.
D. Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are medications commonly prescribed for conditions such as hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. They work by blocking calcium channels in cardiac and smooth muscle cells, resulting in decreased heart rate and vasodilation. Bradycardia is a known side effect of CCBs, especially when taken in excess or in combination with other medications that affect heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Encouraging adequate fluid intake is important postoperatively to maintain hydration and support normal physiological functions. However, the amount of fluid intake should be within the client's tolerance and as prescribed by the healthcare provider. It helps prevent complications such as dehydration and promotes circulation, which is beneficial for wound healing.
B. While some rest and limited mobility are initially recommended after knee replacement surgery to allow for healing and to prevent complications, prolonged bed rest for 5-7 days is not typically necessary or recommended. Early mobilization and gradual increase in activity are encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis and to promote recovery.
C. Placing a pillow directly under the knee is not recommended as it can lead to decreased range of motion and potential contractures.
D. Cold therapy, such as applying cool compresses, is often used to reduce swelling and pain in the initial postoperative period. It can help manage pain and discomfort and promote comfort for the client.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Heparin should be administered using IV tubing that is specifically labeled for heparin or that has been dedicated for anticoagulant use only. However, this is not the most important action.
B. Heparin is not typically administered as a bolus (large single dose) because of its rapid onset of action and potential for causing bleeding complications. Instead, heparin is usually administered as a continuous IV infusion to achieve and maintain therapeutic anticoagulation.
C. While vitamin K is an antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin (a different type of anticoagulant), it is not used for reversing the effects of heparin. The reversal agent for heparin is protamine sulfate. Therefore, having vitamin K available is not necessary for managing a client receiving heparin.
D. The aPTT is a laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It measures the clotting time of blood and helps ensure that the client's heparin infusion is within the desired therapeutic range. Checking aPTT regularly (usually every 4-6 hours initially, then adjusting based on results) is essential to maintain therapeutic anticoagulation and avoid complications like bleeding or clotting.
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