A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic test results of an older adult female client who is preoperative for a knee arthroplasty. The nurse should notify the surgeon of which of the following results?

Hematocrit 40%

Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL

WBC count 20,000/mm3

Potassium 3.8 mEq/L

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   A hematocrit of 40% is within the normal range for females, which is typically around 37-47%. This result is not concerning and does not typically require immediate notification to the surgeon.
B.   A creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL is within the normal range for adults (normal range varies slightly among laboratories but is generally around 0.5-1.1 mg/dL). This result indicates normal kidney function and does not require immediate notification.
C.   A white blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 is elevated above the normal range, which is typically between 4,500-11,000/mm3. An elevated WBC count could indicate infection or inflammation. Given the client is preoperative, an elevated WBC count may suggest an underlying infection that needs to be addressed before proceeding with surgery. The nurse should notify the surgeon promptly so appropriate evaluation and management can be initiated.
D.   A potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range (normal range is generally 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). This result is not concerning and does not require immediate notification to the surgeon.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. It is particularly sensitive to deficiencies in clotting factors, but it does not measure the deficiencies themselves
B. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test measures the effectiveness of the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade.
C. There is no need to skip breakfast or alter diet for an aPTT test. It is not affected by food intake or fasting status.

D. While aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, it is not typically used to monitor warfarin (a vitamin K antagonist) therapy. Warfarin therapy is usually monitored using the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) tests.

A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. This condition occurs because the suctioning can lead to a significant loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. Since hydrochloric acid is one of the components that maintain the acid-base balance in the body, its loss can lead to an increase in blood pH, causing alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2), leading to an increase in PaCO2 and a decrease in pH. In the context of a small bowel obstruction with nasogastric tube suctioning, this is less likely unless there are concurrent respiratory issues.
C. This condition occurs because the suctioning can lead to a significant loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. Since hydrochloric acid is one of the components that maintain the acid-base balance in the body, its loss can lead to an increase in blood pH, causing alkalosis. Acidosis is, therefore, unlikely.
D. Respiratory alkalosis occurs due to hyperventilation, leading to a decrease in PaCO2 and an increase in pH. This is less likely in the context of nasogastric tube suctioning unless there are other contributing factors.

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A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic test results of an older adult female client who is preoperative for a knee arthroplasty. The nurse should notify the surgeon of which of the following results?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client scheduled for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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