A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic test results of an older adult female client who is preoperative for a knee arthroplasty. The nurse should notify the surgeon of which of the following results?
Hematocrit 40%
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
WBC count 20,000/mm3
Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
The Correct Answer is C
A. A hematocrit of 40% is within the normal range for females, which is typically around 37-47%. This result is not concerning and does not typically require immediate notification to the surgeon.
B. A creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL is within the normal range for adults (normal range varies slightly among laboratories but is generally around 0.5-1.1 mg/dL). This result indicates normal kidney function and does not require immediate notification.
C. A white blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 is elevated above the normal range, which is typically between 4,500-11,000/mm3. An elevated WBC count could indicate infection or inflammation. Given the client is preoperative, an elevated WBC count may suggest an underlying infection that needs to be addressed before proceeding with surgery. The nurse should notify the surgeon promptly so appropriate evaluation and management can be initiated.
D. A potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range (normal range is generally 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). This result is not concerning and does not require immediate notification to the surgeon.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Offering ice chips, might seem like a safe alternative, but it still poses a risk if the gag reflex is not intact.
B. Assessing the gag reflex is crucial before offering food or fluids to ensure the client can protect their airway and swallow safely. This response prioritizes safety and is appropriate to ensure the client does not aspirate.
C. Calling the healthcare provider to request orders for food and water may be necessary if there are specific protocols or if the client's condition requires further assessment or interventions before oral intake can be resumed. However, this response does not address the immediate need for comfort and hydration.
D. This response involves assessing the client's ability to swallow directly. While it addresses the client's request for water, it may not be the safest initial approach without first assessing the client's readiness and ability to swallow safely.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. It is particularly sensitive to deficiencies in clotting factors, but it does not measure the deficiencies themselves
B. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test measures the effectiveness of the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade.
C. There is no need to skip breakfast or alter diet for an aPTT test. It is not affected by food intake or fasting status.
D. While aPTT is used to monitor heparin therapy, it is not typically used to monitor warfarin (a vitamin K antagonist) therapy. Warfarin therapy is usually monitored using the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) tests.
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