A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling diaphoretic, anxious, and hungry, unable to swallow or follow commands. The nurse noticed these symptoms occurred 45 minutes after an insulin injection. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing insulin toxicity. Which of the following medication should the nurse have available for this client?
Regular insulin
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Metformin (Glucophage)
Glucagon (GlucaGen)
The Correct Answer is D
A. Regular insulin – This is incorrect. Regular insulin would exacerbate hypoglycemia since it lowers blood glucose levels. Administering insulin in this scenario would worsen the client's condition.
B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) – This is incorrect. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and has no role in treating hypoglycemia or insulin toxicity.
C. Metformin (Glucophage) – This is incorrect. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent and is not suitable for immediate treatment of insulin-induced hypoglycemia.
D. Glucagon (GlucaGen) – This is correct. Glucagon raises blood glucose by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver and is the treatment of choice for severe hypoglycemia in clients unable to swallow or follow commands.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take both aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) and cimetidine (Tagamet HB) at the same time." – This is correct. Taking aluminum hydroxide and cimetidine simultaneously reduces the effectiveness of cimetidine by impairing its absorption. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.
B. "I will take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 1 hour before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking aluminum hydroxide 1 hour before cimetidine allows enough time for the antacid's effects on stomach acidity to stabilize, reducing interference.
C. "I can take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 2 hours before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking the antacid 2 hours before cimetidine provides sufficient time for proper absorption of the medication.
D. None of the above – This is incorrect because statement A reflects improper administration.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hyperglycemia: While metformin is used to manage blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes, its interaction with contrast dye does not directly lead to hyperglycemia. However, the risk for kidney injury, which can affect glucose regulation, is a concern.
B. Acute renal failure: This is correct. The combination of metformin and iodine-containing contrast dye increases the risk of acute renal failure, also known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN). This occurs because contrast agents can cause kidney damage, and metformin is excreted by the kidneys. If renal function is impaired, the buildup of metformin can lead to lactic acidosis.
C. Acute pancreatitis: While acute pancreatitis is a possible side effect of metformin in some individuals, the primary concern with iodine-containing contrast dye is renal failure, not pancreatitis.
D. Acute liver failure: Metformin is primarily metabolized by the kidneys, not the liver, and does not commonly cause liver failure. Renal failure is the more pressing concern with the use of contrast dye in clients taking metformin.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.