A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed prochlorperazine (Compazine) for postoperative nausea. Which of the following reported signs can indicate a potential complication of this medication?

Nausea

Prolonged QT interval

Restlessness

Vomiting

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Nausea is the symptom prochlorperazine is intended to treat, so its occurrence would suggest that the medication is not effective rather than being a complication.

B. Prolonged QT interval is not a typical complication of prochlorperazine; it is more commonly associated with medications like ondansetron.

C. Restlessness can indicate akathisia, a potential extrapyramidal side effect of prochlorperazine. This condition involves an intense feeling of restlessness and the need to move, commonly associated with dopamine antagonists.

D. Vomiting is a symptom treated by prochlorperazine and would likely occur due to inadequate control rather than being a complication of the drug itself.

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Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A. Long-term use of omeprazole is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures due to decreased calcium absorption caused by reduced stomach acid. This complication is significant in older adults, particularly with prolonged therapy.

B. Torsades de Pointes is not a common complication of omeprazole. QT prolongation is more often linked to medications like ondansetron or antiarrhythmics.

C. Nausea is not a typical complication of omeprazole; rather, it is a symptom the drug may help alleviate as part of managing gastrointestinal conditions.

D. Rebound acid hypersecretion can occur after discontinuation of omeprazole. The body may produce an excessive amount of acid to compensate for the previous suppression, leading to worsening symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped.

A. 4 teaspoons B. 2 teaspoons C. 1 teaspoon D. 3 teaspoons

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.

B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.

C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.

D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed prochlorperazine (Compazine) for postoperative nausea. Which of the following reported signs can indicate a potential complication of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A client is prescribed cimetidine 400 mg PO twice daily. It is available as an oral liquid of 100 mg per teaspoon. How many teaspoons should the client take per dose?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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