A nurse is caring for a 62-year-old client with diabetes who has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). Which of the following statements is true regarding metoclopramide (Reglan)? (Select All That Apply.)
"Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and prolonged QT interval."
"The IV form of this medication is used for control of postoperative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as facilitation of small bowel intubation and examination of the GI tract."
"Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and sedation."
"The oral form is used for diabetic gastroparesis (delayed stomach emptying with gas and bloating) and management of GERD through its ability to increase gastric motility."
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
A. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and prolonged QT interval." This is correct. Metoclopramide (Reglan) can cause side effects such as tardive dyskinesia, a movement disorder, and may prolong the QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias.
B. "The IV form of this medication is used for control of postoperative and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, as well as facilitation of small bowel intubation and examination of the GI tract." This is correct. The IV form of metoclopramide is commonly used for these indications, particularly for nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy or surgery, as well as aiding in small bowel intubation.
C. "Complications of this medication include tardive dyskinesia and sedation." This is correct. In addition to tardive dyskinesia, metoclopramide can also cause sedation, making patients feel drowsy or lethargic.
D. "The oral form is used for diabetic gastroparesis (delayed stomach emptying with gas and bloating) and management of GERD through its ability to increase gastric motility." This is correct. The oral form of metoclopramide is frequently used to treat diabetic gastroparesis by improving gastric emptying, as well as managing gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by enhancing motility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Weight gain: Glipizide, like other sulfonylureas, can cause weight gain as it stimulates insulin secretion, which can lead to increased fat storage.
Hypoglycemia: One of the most common and serious side effects of glipizide is hypoglycemia, as it increases insulin levels, which can lower blood sugar too much
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.