A nurse is caring for a client who received prochlorperazine (Compazine) via intravenous push (IVP) 2 hours ago for nausea/vomiting PRN. The nurse noted that the client had a sudden onset of involuntary spasms of the face and neck along with anxiety. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? (Select All That Apply.).
(Select All that Apply.)
Glucagon (Glucagen)
Metformin (Glucophage)
Benztropine (Cogentin)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Correct Answer : C,D
A. Glucagon (Glucagen): Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia and is not indicated for managing EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
B. Metformin (Glucophage): Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage diabetes mellitus and is not relevant for treating EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
C. Benztropine (Cogentin): Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as involuntary muscle spasms, caused by antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine2.
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties that can also be used to manage EPS, including dystonic reactions2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take both aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) and cimetidine (Tagamet HB) at the same time." – This is correct. Taking aluminum hydroxide and cimetidine simultaneously reduces the effectiveness of cimetidine by impairing its absorption. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.
B. "I will take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 1 hour before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking aluminum hydroxide 1 hour before cimetidine allows enough time for the antacid's effects on stomach acidity to stabilize, reducing interference.
C. "I can take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 2 hours before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking the antacid 2 hours before cimetidine provides sufficient time for proper absorption of the medication.
D. None of the above – This is incorrect because statement A reflects improper administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Ondansetron agonizes serotonin receptors on afferent vagal neurons. – This is incorrect. Ondansetron works by blocking, not activating, serotonin (5-HT3) receptors in areas involved in nausea and vomiting.
B. Ondansetron agonizes serotonin receptors in the medulla oblongata. – This is incorrect. Ondansetron does not act as an agonist at serotonin receptors in the medulla oblongata; instead, it antagonizes receptors to reduce nausea.
C. Ondansetron agonizes dopaminergic receptors in the vestibular apparatus. – This is incorrect. Ondansetron does not affect dopaminergic receptors or the vestibular apparatus. Medications like promethazine address dopaminergic pathways.
D. Ondansetron blocks serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. – This is correct. Ondansetron acts as a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve terminals, effectively preventing nausea and vomiting.
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